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Exam Code: LOT-989
Exam Name: IBM (Building Portlets with IBM WebSphere Portlet Factory 6.1.5)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The primary use for the WebSphere Portlet Factory server configuration is?
A. To deliver your application to a production server.
B. To run and test your application on a development server.
C. To create a WAR file for manual deployment to a production or development server.
D. To give your application access to APIsthat are specific to the target server.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Valerie is starting development of her first portlet using WebSphere Portlet Factory. After opening
Eclipse, which perspective should she select?
A. WebSphere Portal
B. Portlet Development
C. Database Development
D. WebSphere Portlet Factory
Answer: D

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NO.3 Jalen has both Rational Application Developer and IBM Rational Software Architect and Eclipse
available to her as IDEs for working with WebSphere Portlet Factory. Which of the following is a difference
that will help her decide which IDE to select?
A. Eclipse provides more efficient class loading.
B. The Rational software IDE is more tightly integated with WebSphere Portal, providing a more seamless
development-staging-testing environment.
C. The Eclipse IDE gives her greater access to test environments, reducing the time required to perform
iterative development and testing.
D. WebSphere Portlet Factory runs equally well in both, so she should base her decision on the
environment with which she is most comfortable and her team supports.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Heather is preparing to move an application into production, and has discovered that there is an option
to create a portlet WAR file or an application WAR file. What is the conceptual difference between the
two?
A. An application WAR is a prerequisite for deploying aportlet WAR; it represents the container hierarchy
for portlets.
B. An application WAR can deploy multipleportlets at the same time in an application, while a portlet WAR
represents a single instance of a portlet.
C. An application WAR can include profiling for personalization and configuration, while aportlet WAR is
static and cannot be configured with profiling.
D. Aportlet WAR represents a portlet designed to run on a portal server, while an application WAR is a
stand-alone application that has no dependencies on portal containers so it can be deployed to an
application server.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Tom has added several new portlet models to his existing project, and would now like to add them to a
page on his development portal server. How does Tom get his new portlets to the server so that he can
add them to a page?
A. Use the "Publish Application" project level menu.
B. Use the "Run As/Run on Server" project level menu.
C. Use the file system copy command to move them to the deployed application.
D. Export the project as a "WebSphere Portlet Factory Zip Archive" and import it into the portal.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-057
Exam Name: IBM (AppScan Source Edition)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which approach to security testing is covered by AppScan Source Edition?
A. manual
B. black box
C. white box
D. gray box
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the first step that should be taken once the Standard Desktop installation has completed?
A. set the admin password
B. create the database user
C. import custom filters
D. import an application or environment
Answer: A

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NO.3 In which deployment configuration do developers routinely scan their code from an IDE plug-in at their
own convenience?
A. Late Stage
B. Low Touch
C. Center of Excellence
D. Mature Deployment LDAP
Answer: B

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NO.4 From which three places can remediation information be accessed for a finding? (Choose three.)
A. from the IDE using a developer plug-in
B. from the Analysis view in the Security Interface
C. from the Reporting Console
D. from the AppScan Knowledgebase Web site
E. from the Triage view in the Security Interface
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about custom rules and markup? (Choose two.)
A. Users can create their own checks in any file using regular expressions and other techniques through a
configuration screen.
B. Users can mark up third-party libraries and custom code to determine which vulnerabilities they are
concerned about.
C. AppScan Source does not ship with markup for standard libraries and common frameworks, so users
will need to mark up all libraries and methods they want as sources/sinks in order to get effective scan
results.
D. Users can mark up any file from IDE plug-ins or from a configuration screen in AppScan Source for
Security.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What is HTTP response splitting?
A. changing Web pages in the cache to attack users
B. overloading a server with excess information
C. altering information, such as product prices, in hidden fields
D. modifying cookies to gain access to other users' accounts
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which customer situation signals a good opportunity for AppScan Source Edition?
A. They have an in-house team of security specialists.
B. They are looking for the solution with the lowest price.
C. Their application is just entering production.
D. They are short on time due to delays in application development.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Why are users not able to create custom rules, set validators, and perform issue management from the
IDE plug-ins?
A. because these tasks should be performed by specialists and applied consistently by all users
B. because rules and validators are not configurable
C. because this planned functionality has not yet been extended to the plug-ins
D. because the plug-ins do not communicate directly with the AppScan Core
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which company offers the primary competition to AppScan Source Edition?
A. Fortify/HP
B. Veracode
C. Microsoft
D. Compuware
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three operating systems support all of the client components of AppScan Source Edition.?
(Choose three.)
A. OS X
B. Solaris
C. Windows 7
D. Windows XP
E. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
Answer: C,D,E

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Exam Code: 000-536
Exam Name: IBM (Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Security and Compliance Management Solutions V3)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which document should be in place as a partial indicator of IT compliance maturity?
A. Compliance Policy Registry
B. FFA Compliance ORM Document
C. Business Resilience Continuity Plan
D. Risk Management Mitigation Portfolio
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two areas help assess the customer's level of maturity for IT process security and compliance
management
(Choose two.)
A. Risk Management
B. Incident Response
C. Project Management
D. Hardware Acquisition
E. Employee Certification
Answer: AB

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NO.3 In the Business Process Modeling Notation (BPMN), what does this symbol represent?
A. Event
B. Action
C. Decision Point
D. IT-based Activity
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the most accurate statement about compliance?
A. MRO and SSO are primarily compliance tools.
B. Compliance has no interest in privileged user activity.
C. Compliance is concerned mostly with security profiles.
D. Compliance is concerned mostly with operator behaviors.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are three possible database products that applications could be using? (Choose three.)
A. Perl
B. RACF
C. Oracle
D. MSSQL
E. IBM DB2 F. ISS SiteProtector
Answer: CDE

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NO.6 A customer may have to comply to which security compliance regulation?
A. PCI
B. ITIL
C. CoBIT
D. Six Sigma
Answer: A

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NO.7 Who has information about the different quality management processes in a customer's organi ation?
A. team leads
B. line managers
C. security officer
D. process consultants
Answer: D

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NO.8 The customer applies a strict password policy including: Password aging set to 60 days Password
complexity set to high Password recycling time set to never These restrictions apply both to user accounts,
system accounts, database accounts, and application accounts.Which level of detail are these policies
referenced in the IT Security Baseline document?
A. Every detailed setting.
B. Only those password policy details that affect the deployment of the IBM tools are referenced.
C. Password policies are not part of the IT Security Baseline document and therefore are not referenced.
D. The document references the existence of the password policy and then refers to the customer's
Password Policy Guideline document for more details.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer has a process which needs centralized keystore management. Which IBM solution should
be proposed?
A. IBM Tivoli Directory Server
B. IBM Tivoli Key Lifecycle Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement is true about privileged user activity monitoring?
A. Privileged user activity monitoring is not necessary.
B. Privileged user activity is applicable to the overall compliance picture.
C. Privileged user activity monitoring is only necessary if sudo is implemented.
D. Privileged user activity monitoring is only necessary if sudo is not implemented.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-724
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Commerce V7.0, System Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

000-724 (IBM WebSphere Commerce V7.0, System Administration) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-724.html

NO.1 An administrator is creating several user accounts with passwords. What hashing scheme is used to
protect the contents of the password?
A. AHS-2
B. PCI-3
C. RPC-1
D. SHA-1
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator needs to configure attributes that are synchronized between the LDAP server and the
IBM WebSphere Commerce database. To do so, the administrator needs to edit:
A. vmmTasks.xml
B. ldapentry.xml
C. enableldap.xml
D. LdapConfig.properties
Answer: B

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NO.3 The administrator needs to protect access to system resources such as file I/O and sockets. How does
the administrator accomplish this?
A. Enable Java 2 security.
B. Enable application security.
C. Enable administrative security.
D. Enable administrative and application security.
Answer: A

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NO.4 An administrator notices database update errors during WebSphere Commerce fix pack installation.
To troubleshoot the issue, the administrator needs to check:
A. db2diag.log
B. Jdbcerr.log
C. updatelog.txt
D. updatedb-instance.log
Answer: D

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NO.5 An administrator needs to delete all processed sale transactions that are older than 90 days. Which
command does the administrator need to use on the demo instance?
A. dbclean -object order -type completed -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
B. dbclean -object order -type obsolete -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
C. dbclean -object catentry -type completed -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
D. dbclean -object catentry -type obsolete -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator is notified that a site-level scheduled job failed. The administrator queries the
SCHACTIVE table and sees that the SCSSTATE column for the job has a status of RF. What does the
administrator need to do?
A. Restart the job.
B. Wait for the job status to be updated.
C. Verify that the JVM process in the SCSQUEUE column is running.
D. Validate the check task command assigned to the scheduled job exists.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Initial troubleshooting has indicated the initial heap size needs to be adjusted. For performance analysis,
how should the administrator set the heap sizes?
A. The initial and maximum heap sizes should be equal.
B. The initial heap size is less than maximum heap size.
C. The initial heap size 128MB and maximum heap size 256MB.
D. The initial heap size 64MB and the maximum heap size 512MB
Answer: A

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NO.8 Users are complaining that the online store is slow. An administrator investigates and concludes there is
a performance hit due to secondary log usage. The following information is gathered from a snapshot:
Maximum secondary log space used (Bytes) = 2048 Secondary logs allocated currently = 2 The following
information is gathered from the database configuration: Log file size (4KB) (LOGFILSIZ) = 1000 Number
of primary log files (LOGPRIMARY) = 4 Number of secondary log files (LOGSECOND) = 3 Which
command will MOST likely improve the performance?
A. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGSECOND 2
B. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGSECOND 8
C. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGPRIMARY 2
D. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGPRIMARY 8
Answer: D

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NO.9 If error notification is enabled, what is the source of the notifications?
A. ECTrace
B. ECMessage
C. Log Analyzer
D. Logging Toolkit
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator needs a store organization structure which contains a Root organization, Default
organization, Seller organization, and B2C organization. The administrator can obtain this organization
structure by publishing a:
A. supply chain store.
B. demand chain store.
C. extended sites store.
D. consumer direct store.
Answer: D

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NO.11 A sports retailer interested in IBM WebSphere Commerce has a large customer service department.
They are interested in using IBM Sales Center for IBM WebSphere Commerce. Which editions of IBM
WebSphere Commerce allow them to do so?
A. Enterprise and Professional
B. Enterprise and Developer Express
C. Express and Professional
D. Express and Developer Professional
Answer: A

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NO.12 The IBM WebSphere Commerce site is running on a single tier. What task should the administrator
have performed to prevent a total database failure?
A. Reduce database traffic.
B. Setup Database Replication
C. Setup Staging server to copy the production data.
D. Federate WebSphere Commerce instance into WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment.
Answer: B

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NO.13 An administrator is configuring JVM heap settings for WebSphere Commerce in a 64 bit environment.
As a starting value, the administrator plans to set the following: Minimum Nursery size: 512 MB Maximum
nursery size: 1024 MB What JVM parameters does the administrator need to add, to enable these values?
A. -Xlp512M -Xlp1024M
B. -Xmn512M -Xmx1024M
C. -Xmns512m -Xmnx1024m
D. -Xmnys512MB -Xmnyx1024MB
Answer: C

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NO.14 An administrator just installed WebSphere Commerce and published a B2C store. However, the
performance of the store is poor. How must the administrator customize the default installation
configuration to improve the site performance?
A. Enable disk offload.
B. Enable Dynamic caching.
C. Increase the number of cache entries.
D. Update cachespec.xml for the store.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The IBM WebSphere Commerce instance has business audit functionality enabled. What does the
administrator need to do to view a business audit report?
A. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Accelerator, select Store > Monitoring > Business Audit.
B. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Accelerator, select Store > Operations > Operational Reports.
C. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Administration Console, select Site > Monitoring > Business Audit.
D. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Administration Console, select Store > Monitoring > Business Audit.
Answer: D

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NO.16 An administrator is configuring a company's IBM WebSphere Commerce site to implement the
Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS) requirement to protect cardholder data. A
decision has been made to prevent storing of the card security code in the database. What action does
the administrator need to take?
A. Set neverPersist to true in PaymentSystemPluginMapping.xml.
B. Set systemEditable to true in PaymentSystemPluginMapping.xml.
C. Set systemEditable to true in PaymentMethodConfigurations.xml.
D. Set removeAfterApproval to true in PaymentSystemPluginMapping.xml.
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator needs to install an interim fix to the WebSphere Commerce application which is in a
clustered environment. The administrator wants the application to be available for requests during the
update. What does the administrator need to do?
A. Roll out the update.
B. Perform a silent update with response file.
C. Update the single deployment manager node.
D. Perform an interactive installation using installation manager.
Answer: A

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NO.18 An administrator is loading access control policy data. The file the administrator has updated is
defaultAccessControlPolicies.xml. The administrator notices after loading the access control policy that
the main access control policy is missing. Which utility does the administrator need to run?
A. acpload
B. dataload
C. acugload
D. acpnlsload
Answer: A

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NO.19 An administrator needs to convert an existing WebSphere Commerce instance into a federated
environment. How does the administrator federate the WebSphere Commerce application server into the
deployment manager cell?
A. Run WC_installdir/bin/config_ant.sh -DinstanceName=instance_name ReconfigureCell
B. Run WC_profiledir/bin/addNode.sh deployment_manager_host_name SOAP_port -includeapps.
C. Run WAS_installdir/bin/configureweb_server_name.sh -user configAdminUser -password
configAdminPassword.
D. In WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Administration Console > Servers >
WebServers, select webserver1 and click Generate Plug-in.
Answer: B

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NO.20 The WebSphere Commerce Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) module has been disabled.
The administrator can enable the WebSphere Commerce PMI module from the:
A. Tivoli Performance Viewer
B. PMI > server1 > Runtime.
C. WebSphere Commerce configuration file.
D. WebSphere Commerce Administrative Console > Monitoring
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M68
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NO.1 Which Informix utility allows you to change the logging mode for one or more databases?
A. oninit
B. ondblog
C. onmode
D. ondbmode
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a valid VP class.?
A. PDQ
B. AIO
C. MACH11
D. OBJ
Answer: B

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NO.3 In which of the following scenarios is Informix the best fit?
A. Applications with variable and dynamic data records.
B. Large data warehouses requiring cubing and complex multi-dimensional queries.
C. Applications requiring dedicated hardware as part of the solution.
D. High-transaction OLTP workloads.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Flexible Grid technology of Informix offers which of the following benefits?
A. The ability to communicate with other non-IBM products.
B. The ability to perform administrative tasks on multiple sites from a single server with no downtime.
C. The ability to replicate data between different versions and editions of Informix.
D. The ability to achieve redundancy using expensive hardware and third party software.
Answer: B

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NO.5 At the operating system level, what is the name of every Informix process?
A. informix
B. oninit
C. cpuvp
D. root
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT an Optim masking technique?
A.encryption
B.date aging
C.replacing data with literals
D.expressions Times New Roman
Answer: A

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NO.2 What statement is FALSE about Optim Data Growth solution?
A.Browse Utility can be used to browse archive files which are on disks or on tapes.
B.ACT command can be used in the select tables list to define actions to be executed during an Archive
or a Restore process at one or more predefined points.
C.Optim supports sparse or dense index for the archive files.
D.Selective restoration is available for Archive Files only.Times New Roman
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which facility can be used to review the traversal path to be used in a process?
A.Show Steps
B.Point and Shoot
C.Table Specification
D.Archive Actions Times New Roman
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements concerning traversing valid relationships that are included in an
Access Definition is TRUE?
A.From the "start" table a path to a child will always be followed unless CHILD_LIMIT=0.
B.The Q1 rule controls whether a path from a "parent" to a "child" is followed.
C.If every path in the Access Definition has Q1='N', then Q2 can still be important.
D.Every "parent" to "child" path in the access definition will be followed.Times New Roman
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following functions does NOT require an Optim Data Privacy License?
A.PROP()
B.TRANS CCN
C.TRANS EML
D.TRANS SSN Times New Roman
Answer: A

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Exam Code: LOT-920
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NO.1 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. If he is using a 32-bit version of WebSphere Portal
and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory. What type of cluster configuration should
he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types
D. A multiproduction cluster because it meets both high availability and high performance criteria
Answer: C

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NO.2 Ronnie is designing a WebSphere Portal environment for her company in which multiple
organizations within the company want to provide different portal environments to distinct user groups.
What feature of WebSphere Portal should she use to meet this need?
A. Virtual portals with separate user realms and administrators to minimize hardware costs and
configuration efforts
B. Multiple clusters in the same cell to avoid duplicate portal installations
C. Multiple portal installations on the same hardware using server virtualization to reduce
hardware costs
D. Shared portals to avoid duplicate effort between each portal
Answer: A

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NO.3 Jim is planning on setting up a Web Content Management System for his company internet and intranet
site. He does not want any of the users to perform authoring actions like creating or editing content in this
server. And he wants them to create/modify content in a separate environment. Identify the best options
that he can consider
A. The WCM content has to be created in the same server it is rendered from.
B. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then setup syndication to replicate data
from Authoring Server to a Deliver Server and render content in deliver server.
C. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then utilize the WSRP support in the
JSR 286 web content viewer to display
content on a remote WebSphere Portal server or cluster.
D. Both B & C
Answer: D

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NO.4 Jim wants to enable the dynamic cache of output from portlet JSPs for different windows and portlet
states. What does he need to do?
A. He needs to enable Servlet Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative Console.
B. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative Console.
C. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the portal administrative portlets.
D. He needs to enable Servlet Caching and the Portlet Fragment Caching in the administrative console
for the application server.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Bill wants to set up a WebSphere Portal farm with four server instances. Which of the following
statements regarding portal farms is true?
A. All four server instances that become a part of portal farm can be installed on different
operating systems.
B. Session persistence is enabled by default on all four server instances..
C. All the server instances need to be configured such that they have an identical security
configuration and user repository, such as LDAP.
D. Portal and content caches across all four server instances are replicated seamlessly.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal and vertical clustering?
A. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources; horizontal clustering
allows multiple servers to act as one
server.
B. Horizontal clustering replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering takes advantage
of multiple WebSphere servers as a
single cell.
C. Vertical clustering takes full advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system; horizontal
clustering provides fault-tolerance and
scalability by adding additional servers.
D. Horizontal clustering allows multiple HTTP servers to serve in a failover scenario; vertical clustering
allows Portal servers to combine processor
and memory into one server.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Jeremy has connected his WebSphere Portal instance to an IBM Tivoli Directory Server repository for
authentication purposes. However, while the majority of users are able to authenticate, certain users are
not able to. Jeremy confirmed that the users are attempting to authenticate with the correct user ID and
password. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users should log in with an email address instead of a user ID.
B. The location of the accounts in the LDAP tree is outside the scope of where WebSphere Portal looks
for accounts.
C. The accounts are not members of the All Authenticated Portal Users group.
D. The LDAP bind password is configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Where does the WebSphere Portal installation wizard log all messages?
A. <WebSphere Portal Root>/log directory
B. <WebSphere Portal Root>/InstallLog directory
C. c:\wpInstallLog.txt file
D. <profile>/PortalServer/temp/InstallLog directory
Answer: A

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NO.9 Sherry is preparing the ConfigEngine properties files of different portal servers for their
development, quality test, and production environments. She has noticed that the majority of the
properties are the same except the names for the server hosts, nodes, and so on. Which of the following
options would be the most efficient way for her to do this task?
A. Modify the properties file generated for each portal server separately.
B. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations and specify the location of the parent
properties file to be used when executing
the ConfigEngine tasks.
C. Modify the properties file generated for one of portal servers, copy it to other portal server,s and then
change those names manually.
D. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations, and create a script to be able to replace
the properties of the properties files for
each portal server with the properties from the parent properties file automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content mapping from the
portal page where the content is
rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statement A, Statement B, and Statement C are valid.
E. Only Statement A, and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is a portal farm?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following options describes a dynamic portal cluster?
A. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Extended Deployment
B. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
C. A portal cluster with a dynamic amount of JVM heap in each cluster member
D. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Dynamic Cluster Manager
Answer: A

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NO.13 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.14 Don is designing a highly available, secure, high traffic public website for his company. If he wants to
use WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone portal server with disaster recovery
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load balancing solution, a portal cluster with HTTP
servers handling static content, and
clustered LDAP servers and database servers
C. A portal cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached storage devices
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a portal cluster
Answer: B

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NO.15 Tom is going to install a production WebSphere Portal server by replicating the installation someone
else did for the test server. Where can he get the installation information generated during the previous
installation of the test server?
A. <intall_tmp>/wpinstalllog.txt
B. <wp_root>/log/responselog.txt
C. <wp_root>/log/installresponse.txt
D. < intall_tmp>/installmessages.txt
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding Multiple Profiles?
A. Multiple profiles share the program files (binaries)
B. Each portal profile maintains its own independent configuration
C. ConfigEngine commands must be performed at the master configuration in order to propagate
changes across all virtual profiles
D. All virtual profiles must be taken down when performing maintenance on the Portal installation
Answer: C

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NO.18 Monica is working with clients to architect the security of their new portal, which is a two-server
clustered environment. Her client stores employee accounts in Microsoft Active Directory, and customer
accounts in IBM Tivoli Directory Server. Both employees and customers must be able to log in to the
portal. Which of the following statements is correct.?
A. The client must move all accounts into a single directory, and either of the two directory servers are
appropriate.
B. The client should have one cluster member use Active Directory for authentication, and the other
cluster member use Tivoli Directory Server.
C. The client must use distinct virtual portals for each of the two type of users (employee or customer) to
handle this scenario.
D. It is acceptable to have multiple directory servers used for authentication for all servers in a single
cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.19 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps that one should
take when setting up a WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1. Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2. Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4. Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node for each portal
node in the cluster.
2. Federate each of these nodes into the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4. Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1. Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the
ConfigEngine tasks to create a profile template.
2. Prepare the first node to communicate WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment,and use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to
configure the cluster and user registry.
3. Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4. Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete the cluster
setup.
D. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed node for
each portal node in the cluster.
2. Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each node.
3. Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user registy.
4. Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.20 After installing a WebSphere Portal V7.0 and a WebSphere Virtual Enterprise server as a primary
server, which of the following options should be done to create a dynamic cluster in a WebSphere
Extended Deployment cell?
A. Run the addNode command to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, andrun the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set up the cluster.
B. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set
up the cluster.
C. Run the addNode tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere Extended
Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
D. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell,create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere
Extended Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-538
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 According to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Installation and Setup Guide, what is the maximum
number of agents that a remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (RTEMS) can handle?
A.500
B.1500
C.2500
D.3500
Answer: B

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NO.2 An agentless monitoring server is installed with these active agentless monitor instance types started: 2
AIX, 2 Linux, 2 Solaris, 2 Windows.What is the maximum number of systems that can be monitored?
A.8
B.80
C.800
D.8000
Answer: C

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NO.3 customer wants fully autonomous monitoring for their operating systems which are based in a place
with these restrictions:
The traditional operating system agents (the knt, klz, and kux agents that monitor the Windows, Linux,
and UNIX operating environments) cannot be used directly.Which statement is true in order to meet the
customer's requirements?
A.IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) will not be the right solution because of the relatively large agent footprint.
B.ITM will not be the right solution because Java is required for all ITM agents to operate.
C.The traditional ITM operating system agents must be configured for Autonomous Mode.
D.The customer will have to deploy the System Monitor Agents which provide autonomous-only
monitoring for their operating systems.
Answer: D

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NO.4 An IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) fix pack was successfully installed but workspaces are not
properly displaying the updated version of agents.What must be done to fix this problem?
A.restart the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS)
B.reconfigure TEPS
C.reinstall the ITM fix pack and restart TEPS
D.restart TEPS and the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which protocol can an agent use to send messages to an event management system when the agent is
running in Autonomous mode?
A.XML
B.SSH
C.SOAP
D.SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two considerations before installing any IBM Tivoli Monitoring component in an environment
where a single or multiple firewall(s) exist? (Choose two.)
A.Open only one port on the firewall(s).
B.Opening as few ports on the firewall(s) as possible.
C.The existing firewall(s) must be moved and/or uninstalled.
D.Location of components to be installed relation to existing firewall(s).
E.If a single or multiple firewall exists then the KDE gateway must be used.
Answer: B, D

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NO.7 What are three supported relational databases for the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server? (Choose three.)
A.Derby
B.Oracle
C.Sybase
D.Informix
E.IBM DB2
F.SQL Server
Answer: A, E, F

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NO.8 Which two methods can be used on a Windows computer to check the status of remote agent
deployments? (Choose two.)
A.the command tacmd viewDepot
B.the command tacmd getDeployStatus
C.the Deployment Status Summary workspace
D.the command itmcmd viewDeployStatus
E.the Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Servers workspace
Answer: B, C

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NO.9 When installing Application Support for an agent on the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS), which
three components are added into the TEPS database? (Choose three.)
A.Agent Product Provided Queries
B.Agent Product Provided Situations
C.Agent Product Provided Workspaces
D.Agent Product Provided Policies/Workflows
E.Agent Product Provided Managed System Group
F.Agent Product Provided Catalog and Attribute Files
Answer: A, C, F

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NO.10 The WAREHOUSEAGGREGLOG table provides what type of information?
A.attribute group names and number of rows processed by the Summarization and Pruning agent
B.number of rows of summarized data currently residing in the Tivoli Data Warehouse for each attribute
group
C.messages regarding connection of the Summarization and Pruning agent to the Tivoli Enterprise
Monitoring Server
D.statistics about how many rows of summarized historical data have been retrieved for display at the
Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
Answer: A

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NO.11 In IBM Tivoli Monitoring, which three agents can have Application Support installed during the Tivoli
Enterprise Portal Server installation process? (Choose three.)
A.Agent Builder
B.Universal Agent
C.Warehouse Proxy
D.Agentless Monitoring for Linux
E.Monitoring Agent for Watchdog
F.Monitoring Agent for OMEGAMON XE for Messaging
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.12 What information must be collected in order to plan a Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server in an IBM
Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) implementation?
A.The location of the servers to be monitored.
B.Which applications are running on the monitored servers?
C.The number of servers and applications monitored by ITM.
D.How many users are logged into each of the monitored servers?
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer must perform trend analysis for future growth.Which product should be included in the
design?
A.IBM System Director
B.IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
C.IBM Tivoli Performance Analyzer
D.IBM Tivoli Monitoring Agent Builder
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two pieces of information must be collected in order to select the appropriate monitoring agent?
(Choose two.)
A.The applications to be monitored.
B.The firewalls in the company's network.
C.The size of the data warehouse database.
D.The operating system of the servers to be monitored.
E.The operating system of the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Answer: A, D

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NO.15 On Linux the Warehouse Proxy agent uses a JDBC driver to connect to the Tivoli Data
Warehouse.This requires the specification of an URL.Which item is required to be specified in the URL?
A.port 1918
B.Tivoli Data Warehouse name
C.Warehouse user and password
D.IP address of the database server
Answer: B

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NO.16 How is Application Support installed on a Windows Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server?
A.the command kincinfo
B.the command itmcmd support
C.setup.exe from the installation media
D.Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Services
Answer: C

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NO.17 When planning to deploy a KDE Gateway, which two IBM Tivoli Monitoring components must be
configured to add the KDE Gateway configuration? (Choose two.)
A.Warehouse Proxy Agent
B.Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C.Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D.Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
E.Summarization and Pruning Agent
Answer: C, D

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NO.18 What is the default agent installation directory on UNIX?
A./IBM/ITM
B./usr/ibm/itm
C./var/IBM/ITM
D./opt/IBM/ITM
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two items can be specified while configuring a Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (TEMS)?
(Choose two.)
A.TEMS gateways
B.configure Hot Standby TEMS
C.Tivoli Event Integration Facility
D.hostname of the data warehouse server
E.hostname of the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
Answer: B, C

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NO.20 Which three database products are supported for the Tivoli Data Warehouse database? (Choose three.)
A.Derby
B.Oracle
C.Sybase
D.MS SQL
E.IBM DB2
F.IBM Informix
Answer: B, D, E

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