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Exam Code: ST0-10X
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5 for Unix (STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 198 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 The 'Administer' button in the Storage Foundation Management Server user interface for a host is
continually red, and the vxsvc32 agent is listed as DOWN.
How do you solve this problem?
A.Reconfigure the Storage Foundation management Server.
B.Reinstall the agent.
C.Restart Storage Foundation Management Server.
D.Change the types.ini configuration file on the Central Management Server.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the default limit to the number of subdisks that can be attached to a single plex?
A.1024
B.2048
C.4096
D.Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have large number of mirrored volumes, and the resynchronization process on mirrored volumes
will take lot of time. You want to address enable Dirty Region Logging (DRL) and find out the cause why it
takes a long time for resynchronization. You want to check the status of DRL logging to see if it is already
enabled.
How will you accomplish this task?
A.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DCOVOL option
B.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DRLVOL option
C.Use the vxprint command with the -F%dcologging $DCOVOL option
D.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $$DCONAME option
Answer: D

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NO.4 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a high
demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will increase
the I/O performance. Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across multiple
disks?
A.Write throughput degradation
B.Single disk failure causes volume failure
C.Requirement for disk redundancy
D.Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are working with the Storage Foundation Intelligent Storage Provisioning feature, to create a new
mirrored volume. To prevent system failure, you want to ensure that you are able to perform a recovery of
mirrored volumes in minimum response time.
What should you do?
A.Create a Dirty Region Log.
B.Create a Data Change Map log.
C.Create a RAID-5 log.
D.Create a Snap object log.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The vxprint command output for volume vol07 indicates that it has three plexes. How will you
determine which plexes are used for data?
A.Note the lengths. Data plexes are all the same length.
B.Note the STATE field. Non-data plexes will be indicated by the value: LOG.
C.Note the STATE field. Data plexes will be indicated by the value: MIRROR.
D.Note the RECORD TYPE field. Data plexes are designated with PL.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two restrictions does relayout place on the administration of a volume while it is in progress?
(Select two.)
A.During a relayout, you cannot create a sparse plex.
B.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of mirrors in a volume.
C.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of subdisks in a volume.
D.During a relayout, you cannot create a snapshot of a volume.
E.During a relayout, you cannot create a backup of a volume.
Answer: AD

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NO.8 You are auditing a current storage environment that is not utilizing storage tiering. The information
gained from the audit is to be used in a new storage tiering design that will have 4 tiers (Tiers 1-4). You
need to determine the location for archive data which needs to be accessible but is not used heavily.
Where should you store this data?
A.Tier 1: High-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
B.Tier 2: High-end arrays, but performance is not a priority.
C.Tier 3: Mid-range to low-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
D.Tier 4: low-cost media, such as tape, with little consideration given to performance.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You place six physical disks under Volume Manager control to create 10GB of volume. You want to
use this volume as an archive directory. You need to create a volume that will store three copies of the
archived data. Which command will you use to create a volume with three plexes?
A.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
B.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
C.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
D.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which physical storage device is the equivalent to a virtual volume?
A.A disk
B.A partition
C.A block
D.A directory
Answer: B

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NO.11 You want to allow non-layered volume to change to layered stripe-mirror volume while remaining online.
What is the correct procedure to perform this conversion?
A.Convert the volume, stop the volume, remount the file system, and start the volume.
B.Unmount the file system, stop the volume, convert the volume, start the volume, and remount the file
system.
C.Resync the volume, convert the volume, and mirror the volume.
D.Stop the volume and then convert the volume.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which form of Disk Spanning allows you to map data in equally-sized chunks alternating across
multiple disks and is also known as interleaving?
A.Striping
B.Concatenation
C.Mirroring
D.Parity
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are monitoring a file system on a Solaris operating system using Veritas Volume Manager when
the following kernel message appears: WARNING: msgcnt x: mesg 069: V-2-69: memory usage specified
by the vxfs:vxfs_ninode and vxfs:vx_bc_bufhwm parameters exceeds available memory; the system may
hang under heavy load. You need to resolve this error. What should you do?
A.Increase the value of one or both parameters to 100% of physical memory or to 100% of kernel virtual
memory
B.Remove either the physical memory parameter or the kernel virtual memory parameter.
C.Leave the parameters at current levels and disregard the system message because it is a false
message.
D.Reduce the value of one or both parameters to less than 50% of physical memory or to 66% of kernel
virtual memory
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which command will you use to determine the operating mode of vxconfigd?
A.vxdctl enable
B.vxdctl mode
C.vxmode
D.ps -ef |grep vxconfig
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the minimum number of plexes required for true mirroring to provide redundancy of data?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B

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NO.16 You have installed Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard server with a number of hosts. You want to
centrally monitor and manage the hosts. You also want to generate reports for the hosts and the storage
resources that the hosts consume. What should you do?
A.Install the Veritas Quick I/O option on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
B.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Server on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
C.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Host on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
D.Upgrade Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard to Storage Foundation 5.0 Enterprise.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which three are the database agents that are supported by Storage Foundation High Availability
version? (Select three.)
A.Informix
B.DB/2
C.Ingress
D.Oracle
E.Sybase
F.SQL
Answer: BDE

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NO.18 You are responsible for administering the Storage Foundation for Sybase server. You want to remove a
mounted volume. What should you do first to ensure you are able to remove the mounted volume?
A.Remove the snapshot from the associated volume.
B.Recursively remove all plexes and subdisks.
C.Disassociate the snapshot from the associated volume.
D.Unmount the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.19 How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which structure records are stored in the private region? (Each correct Answer presents part of the
solution. Select three.)
A.Disk group configuration
B.Disk and disk group ID
C.File system metadata
D.Disk group kernel log
E.Partition tables
Answer: ABD

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Exam Code: ST0-025
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.5 (STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 How do you install the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) Console?
A. on the SSIM DVD, go to Tools and install the client
B. go to the SSIM web interface, download the client and click Run
C. from the SSIM appliance, deploy the console to your machine
D. No installation is necessary because SSIM is a browser-based tool.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the correct Symantec Security Information Manager incident identification pipeline?
A. collection --> normalization --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
B. normalization --> collection --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
C. rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
D. attack tracing --> rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
Answer: A

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NO.3 In Symantec Security Information Manager, collectors send events to _____.
A. Event Disposition
B. Event Archive
C. Event Reporting
D. Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are two ways in which new entries can be added to the Assets Table of a Symantec Security
Information Manager solution? (Choose two.)
A. through the Lookup Tables pane of the Information Manager Console
B .importing from HP OpenView through the OpenView Integration feature
C. importing from a .CSV file exported from Active Directory
D. automatic population through a supported vulnerability scanner
Answer: C, D

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NO.5 How can you determine which ports are potentially vulnerable on a given host in the Assets Table?
A. by running the NetScan user action on the asset
B. by looking at the Services tab on the asset
C. by viewing the Details tab for the asset
D. by running the Host Information report on the asset
Answer: B

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NO.6 Once custom rules are properly defined, the Correlation Engine _____.
A. correlates events against the rule criteria, analyzes conclusions and creates impending incidents
B. analyzes events against the rule criteria, correlates with existing conclusions and creates the
impending incident
C. analyzes events against the rule criteria, creates conclusions and correlates conclusions into incidents
D. applies individual rules to events, analyzes conclusions and correlates events into incidents
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is Device-level aggregation?
A. parsing data with data sensors
B. grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C. forwarding event data to the appliance
D. event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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NO.8 Security data is continuously gathered from thousands of security sensors worldwide through the
integrated _____.
A. Symantec Security Information Manager
B. DeepSight Global Intelligence Network
C. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
D. Symantec Sygate Solution
Answer: B

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NO.9 By default, event archives are stored for up to _____ days.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90
Answer: A

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NO.10 Where do you configure LiveUpdate for Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM)?
A. SSIM Start Page --> Configure Appliance --> LiveUpdate tab
B. SSIM Console --> Systems tab --> LiveUpdate tab
C. from a command prompt
D. SSIM Client --> Maintenance tab --> LiveUpdate tab
Answer: A

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NO.11 Events that are filtered out remain stored in the ______.
A. Event Logger
B. Incident Repository
C. Event Archive
D. Incident History
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two are commonly used to view archived events? (Choose two.)
A. Information Manager Event Viewer
B. Archive Management Console tab
C. Query Wizard
D. Incident Management Console tab
Answer: A, C

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NO.13 Which menu options do you select in the user interface to shut down or reboot the Symantec Security
Information Manager (SSIM) appliance?
A. System --> Shutdown/Restart
B. SSIM Console --> Shutdown/Restart
C. SSIM --> Configure Appliance --> Shutdown/Restart
D. SSIM Console --> Systems tab
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the purpose of normalization?
A. to minimize the number of events affecting multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize
the events more quickly
B. to correlate events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events equally
C. to standardize events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events
equally
D. to process the events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize the events
more quickly
Answer: C

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NO.15 When querying archived event data, how can you make a query available to other users of the system?
A. save it in Published Queries
B. save it in Public Templates
C. grant Read Query permission to the domain
D. check the Shared option on the saved query
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which three ratings does the Information Manager Assets Table use to quantify the importance of the
device and help determine how to escalate security incidents related to that device? (Choose three.)
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Availability
D. Priority
E. Integrity
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.17 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content from Symantec?
A. LiveUpdate
B. LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C. Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D. Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are on-box collectors?
A. PIX, UNIX Syslog and Sygate
B. Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C. PIX, Snort and Symantec Mail Security
D. Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Symantec Network Security
Answer: B

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NO.19 Normalization provides a unique identifier for each type of event and _____.
A. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated incident
B. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated event
C. maps events to a device-specific signature
D. maps incidents to a device-specific signature
Answer: B

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NO.20 What information does the Correlation Manager use to identify and prioritize incidents?
A. DeepSight
B. event history
C. incident
D. assets
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-91W
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows(STS))
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NO.1 A request is made to change volume residences.
Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes? (Select two.)
A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.
B. All volumes must have barcode labels.
C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.
D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.
E. All volumes must have the same media type.
Answer: AE

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NO.2 Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup
LiveUpdate?
A. 6.0 GA
B. 6.0 MP4
C. 6.5 GA
D. 7.0 GA
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two types of storage will be used when a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 policy uses "Any Available"
for policy storage? (Select two.)
A. BasicDisk and AdvancedDisk storage units
B. Media Manager and NDMP storage units
C. storage units with the "On Demand Only" option disabled
D. storage unit groups
E. storage units with available media
Answer: CE

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NO.5 Which command provides a list of disk pools required for restoring a client?
A. nbdevquery
B. bpimagelist
C. vmquery
D. bpdiskinfo
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator needs to back up a file system with millions of files in the shortest amount of time.
Which option should be used?
A. enable "Compression" in the policy
B. use the FlashBackup policy type
C. enable "Collect True Image Restore" in the policy
D. use the AFS policy type
Answer: B

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NO.7 In which two processes does Symantec NetBackup 7.0 rehydrate deduplicated data? (Select two.)
A. Optimized duplication
B. Duplicate copy to tape
C. Restore to an OpenStorage device
D. Replicated copy
E. Restore to a client
Answer: BE

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NO.8 The Symantec NetBackup Startup and Shutdown commands on Windows are "bpup" and "bpdown"
In which directory can these commands be found?
A. install_path\NetBackup\bin
B. install_path\NetBackup\bin\admincmd
C. install_path\NetBackup\bin\support
D. install_path\NetBackup\bin\goodies
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator configures two standalone LTO4 tape drives on a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 media
server with an existing tape library with an LTO4 drive.
How should the administrator configure the storage units?
A. place each standalone drive in its own storage unit
B. place the two standalone drives in a single new storage unit
C. place the two standalone drives in an existing storage unit with the other LTO4 drives
D. place the two standalone drives in a new storage unit group
Answer: B

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
In the exhibit, the server_data policy is greyed out and marked with a red "X."
What does this indicate?
A. The policy is using a FlashBackup policy, but the Enterprise client is unlicensed.
B. The policy is using an AdvancedDisk storage unit, but the Flexible Disk option is unlicensed.
C. The policy's "go into effect" date is disabled or set to a date in the future.
D. A backup run from this policy recently failed and the status is in the Activity Monitor.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs to restore an individual file that was accidentally deleted from a server.
When selecting the backup images for a restore, the folders listed in the left-pane window are greyed out.
When selecting one of these folders, the list of files on the right-pane window is empty even though files
have been backed up from this folder in the past.
What can the administrator do to restore individual files in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface?
A. The administrator needs to login to a system, such as the master server, that has permissions to run
the restore job.
B. The media with the data needs to be placed into the tape library, then the library needs to be
inventoried.
C. The media with the restore data is encrypted and the password needs to be supplied.
D. The restore needs to be changed from a true image backup to a normal backup.
Answer: D

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NO.12 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

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NO.13 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.14 A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM.
When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs.
What should be done to resolve this error?
A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup servers
B. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bit
C. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage servers
D. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDP
Answer: B

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NO.15 If frequency-based cleaning of a drive is desired, which parameter must be set in the Symantec
NetBackup 7.0 administration console?
A. Cleaning Frequency (Between mounts)
B. Cleaning Frequency (In GB)
C. Cleaning Frequency (Between backups)
D. Cleaning Frequency (In hours)
Answer: D

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NO.16 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

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NO.18 An administrator is checking the status of a standalone drive in the Device Monitor. The Control column
status is AVR and the Ready column status is No.
What does this indicate?
A. The drive is down.
B. The drive is up and under operator control.
C. The drive is up and it is empty.
D. The drive is up, but the tape in the drive is busy.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two calculations are required to size the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalog for a new installation?
(Select two.)
A. divide number of files by retention period
B. multiply number of files per backup by number of backups per retention period
C. multiply number of backups per day by number of clients
D. multiply number of files by average length of file names
E. divide full backups by retention period
Answer: BD

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NO.20 An administrator needs to back up a Windows 2003 client and creates a backup selections list that
includes the System_State directive.
What happens when the backup runs?
A. The backup runs successfully.
B. The job is partially successful. All files are backed up except the system state.
C. The backup fails. None of the files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for
Windows 2003 clients.
D. The backup fails. None of the requested files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is
required for Windows 2003 clients.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-093
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5 (STS))
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NO.1 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A. policy creation
B. detection of incidents
C. inspection of network communication
D. identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.2 What should be used to exclude email going to any email address in the partner.com domain?
A. IP filter
B. L7 filter
C. Content filter
D. Sender/User Matches pattern
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A. date fields
B. numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C. column names in the first row
D. country, state, or province names
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which detection server can block file transfer protocol (FTP) requests?
A. Network Monitor Server
B. FTP Prevent Server
C. Web Prevent Server
D. Endpoint Prevent Server
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A. Network Protect
B. Endpoint Discover
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A. manually quarantine files
B. automatically quarantine files on file shares
C. modify a response within a policy
D. automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E. apply digital rights to content
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 What is the sequence of message processing for Network Monitor?
A. Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection -> Incident Writer
B. Monitor Controller -> Detection -> File Reader -> Incident Writer
C. File Reader -> IncidentPersister -> Manager -> Notifier
D. Request Processor -> Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which products run on the same detection server?
A. Network Protect and Network Discover
B. Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C. Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D. Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.9 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the primary function of Endpoint Prevent?
A. encrypts confidential data being sent over the network or copied to removable media
B. finds confidential data and quarantines the data to a central repository
C. disables end-user devices that are unauthorized by a company's data security policies
D. stops confidential data from being sent over the network or copied to removable media
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which server encrypts the message when using a Modify SMTP Message response rule?
A. Encryption Gateway
B. SMTP Prevent Server
C. MTA Server
D. Enforce Server
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which component has an obfuscated (hidden) log?
A. Endpoint Agent
B. Enforce Server
C. Network Monitor
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.13 What does Network Monitor use to identify network traffic going to a nonstandard port?
A. string matching
B. port range
C. either UDP or TCP
D. protocol signature
Answer: D

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NO.14 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A. Incident Dashboard
B. Incident Snapshot
C. Incident List
D. Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

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NO.15 The user interface (UI) will be used to upgrade to Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5. A Data Loss
Prevention administrator will be logging in to the Enforce Server from a desktop to perform the upgrade.
The Vontu\Protect\config\Manager.properties file is set to default settings. Which port must be open to
connect to the upgrader application?
A. 8080
B. 8090
C. 8100
D. 8300
Answer: D

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NO.16 To which file system folder does PacketCapture write reconstructed SMTP messages?
A. drop
B. drop_pcap
C. drop_discover
D. drop_smtp
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which feature is a key benefit of on-screen notification?
A. uses on-screen notification in different languages
B. educates the user about the violation that has occurred
C. stops the movement of data that violates policies
D. notifies the user that the Endpoint Agent is active
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are two available options when accessing the Configure Server page to configure protocol filters?
(Select two.)
A. HTTPS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. ICMP
E. UDP
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 What must a Data Loss Prevention administrator recycle for Network Monitor filter configuration
changes to take effect?
A. VontuMonitorController
B. PacketCapture
C. FileReader
D. Network Monitor
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two protocols are available by default and recognized by Network Monitor by their individual
signatures? (Select two.)
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. IM: AIM
D. SNMP
E. TFTP
Answer: A,C

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NO.1 Where can the NetBackup release updates be found?
A.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/updates/overview.jsp?pid=15143
B.http://www.symantec.com/business/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
C.http://www.symantec.com/business/software/overview.jsp?pid=15143
D.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
Answer: B

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NO.2 Where is the best location to find binary sizes to help determine if an administrator's NetBackup
environment has sufficient disk space allocated for an upgrade to safely and efficiently back up and
restore all of their data?
A.Symantec NetBackup Administrators Guide
B.Symantec NetBackup Troubleshooting Guide
C.Symantec NetBackup Upgrade Release Notes
D.Symantec NetBackup Operations Guide
Answer: C

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NO.3 A restore is initiated for a client in which part of the admin console?
A.Backup, Archive, and Restore
B.Activity Monitor
C.Backup Policy Administration
D.Device Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.4 The maximum data buffer size is calculated as a multiple of operating system (OS) pages (1 page =
4KB).The maximum OS pages is 256 (0 to 255).What is the maximum size limit for data buffers on
Windows?
A.64KB
B.1024KB
C.256KB
D.512KB
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which NetBackup process transfers the full data stream from the client to the media server when using
deduplication?
A.bpdm
B.bptm
C.bpbkar
D.bpdp
Answer: C

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NO.6 What allows administrators to freeze or unfreeze media?
A.Device Monitor > Media
B.Storage Unit Properties
C.Media and Device Management > Media
D.Media and Device Management > Tape
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which one of the following is a tape drive cleaning method within NetBackup
A.frequency-based cleaning
B.on-demand cleaning with drive-alert
C.manual cleaning with a tape cleaning solution
D.scheduled cleaning
Answer: A

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NO.8 How is a backup executed manually from the NetBackup Admin Console?
A.right-click on the client in the Host Properties screen and click on Backup
B.set the schedule to execute at 00:00:00 in the backup policy
C.right-click on the client's backup policy and select "manual backup" then select the client name
D.right-click on any line in the Activity Monitor and select "manual backup", then enter the client name
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator is configuring multi-streaming for a few backup policies.The administrator is backing
up four volumes configured on two physical disks from a NetBackup client.How many backup streams
should be configured for best backup performance?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which NetBackup command line utility is used to verify communication between NetBackup and a
robotic tape library?
A.vmoprcmd
B.robtest
C.sgscan
D.libtest
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer is experiencing long backup times.An administrator is given the task of evaluating the data
transfer path.What are the components that make up the data transfer path?
A.the NetBackup client, the client memory, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
B.the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
C.the NetBackup client, the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
D.the NetBackup server, the network, the network switch, and the storage device
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the catalog disaster recovery file that is created during the online catalog backup intended for?
A.record keeping purposes
B.identification of media required for a recovery
C.identification of the clients that were backed up over a specified time period
D.automation of the process of NetBackup recovery
Answer: D

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NO.13 How do administrators disable the TapeAlert feature in UNIX for NetBackup?
A.check the disable_tape_alert box in the device manager
B.create a touch file at /usr/openv/volmgr/database/NO_TAPEALERT
C.create a touch file at /usr/openv/netbackup/NO_TAPEALERT
D.add an entry (disable_tapealert) in the bp.conf
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two should be verified prior to installing NetBackup? (Select two.)
A.mount all CIFS file systems to the server
B.apply the most current operating system patches and updates to the server
C.remove all storage devices from the server
D.remove any other vendor's backup software currently configured on the system
E.un-mount all the NFS file systems from the server
Answer: B, D

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NO.15 What is the command syntax to immediately expire images on a particular tape (tapeid)?
A.bpexpdate -expire 1 -id <tapeid>
B.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 0
C.bpexpdate -id <tapeid> -d 0
D.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 1
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the originator ID for nbpem process, which is used in unified logging?
A.115
B.116
C.117
D.118
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which command is most commonly used to troubleshoot and test the connectivity between a
master/media server and a client?
A.bpconnect
B.bpclient
C.bpclntcmd
D.bpdbm
Answer: C

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NO.18 An administrator receives a call from a customer stating that all the backup jobs that were scheduled to
run the previous night did not run.Which NetBackup process should the administrator look into to
troubleshoot the problem?
A.nbpem
B.nbemm
C.bpdbjobs
D.bpdbm
Answer: A

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NO.19 NetBackup (NBU) master, media, and client servers may be run in mixed environments.Windows 2000
(Win2K) is not supported in NBU 7.0.How can Windows 2000 Servers be protected in a supported
configuration?
A.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
B.Win2K with a 7.x client may be backed up with an NBU 6.5.4 media server.
C.Win2K with a 5.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
D.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 5.x media server.
Answer: A

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NO.20 An administrator has a NetBackup environment with four LTO3 tape drives and 20 clients.The
master/media server is on a 1 Gb connection, but the clients only have 100 Mb connections.Which two
settings can be used to improve the backup performance? (Select two.)
A.enable multistreaming for all policies and increase the aximum jobs per client to a bigger value
B.enable hardware compression on the tape drives
C.enable multiplexing at the STU level and set it to a higher value
D.enable Client Encryption Option on the network clients
E.exclude large clients from daily backups
Answer: A, C

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Exam Code: ST0-136
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec System Recovery 2011 Technical Assessment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Consider the command syntax below
ssr -r <file> -d <destination>
What does the switch -r accomplish in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. searches the recovery point for a specific file
B. restoresthespecified file to a location
C. lists the partition and file types In the recovery point
D. reboots the computer when the restore is complete
Answer: D

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NO.2 when viewing the backup status of a computer in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Management
Solution, which two Backup, reporting statuses can a user view for the selected drives? (Select two.)
A. Full Status Reporting
B. DriveStatus Reporting
C. Group Status Reporting
D. Backup Status Reporting
E. No Status Reporting
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 A system administrator would like to verify whether a recent virus on their network exists In an image
before restoring. What is the recommended method to make the flies available for a virus scan to check
for this?
A. Restore the image to the machine, then run a virus scan.
B. Mount the Image In Windows and run a virus scan.
C. Restore files to an isolated directory using Recovery Point Browser
D. Use Google Desktop to access the files.
Answer: B

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NO.4 how do the client computers process backup policies submitted by the Symantec System Recovery
2011 Management Solution?
A. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs totheclient computers beforeeachbackup
B. Client computers pun the backup policies down from Notification server and processthem.
C. Client computers run the backup policies from Notification Server and process them,
D. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs to the client computers every night
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which command can be run to allow network access to the computer during a Unix-based recovery
from a Symantec Recovery Disk.?
A. network eth0start
B. ifup
C. service network up
D. eth0service restart
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which option should be used to convert a recovery point where a FAT32 file system Is the
destination1?
A. Run windows Mint-Setup
B. Utilize temporary storage location
C. Split virtual disk into 2 GB (vmdk) files
D. Rename file to DOS standard
Answer: C

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NO.7 To prevent unauthorized access to recovery points when stored on a network share, what should be
enabled in the Job definition?
A. T-10 encryption
B. Pretty GoodPrivacy(PGP) encryption
C. SymantecEndpointEncryption
D. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encryption
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which wizard should an administrator select from the Symantec Recovery Disk to Degin a Virtual to
Physical conversion?
A. virtual Machine Restore
B. One Time Physical Conversion
C. Convert to Physical
D. Recover My Computer
Answer: D

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NO.9 A virus attack has corrupted the first sector of a physical hard drive. Fortunately, a recovery point of the
system drive is available to restore with the Symantec Recovery Disk.
Which option must be selected during the restore?
A. Restore master boot record
B. Use Restore Anyware
C. Check for file system errors after recovery
D. Verify recovery point before recovery
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which requirement needs to tie met, to create a cold backup from a non-functioning system using the
Symantec Recovery Disk?
A. An active partition must be set
B. A valid license key for Symantec System Recovery 2011 needs to be used.
C. The computer needs to first have Symantec System Recovery 2011 installed.
D. A custom Symantec Recovery Disk needs to be used.
Answer: B

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NO.11 An administrator of the Symantec System Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution needs to
determine which managed client computers have an unsupported version of SSR installed.
Which web part name of the Home screen would display this for the administrator?
A. Alerts and Failures
B. Backup Status
C. Operating System Statistics
D. License Status
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which software should De installed on the remote client first to be managed by Symantec System
Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution?
A. Symantec SSR software
B. Symantec installation Manager
C. Symantec SSR plug-in
D. Symantec Management (Altiris) Agent
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two options are required to enable booting when using the Recover Drive Wizard to restore the
operating system onto a new, empty, hard disk? (Select two)
A. Resize drive
B. Check file system for errors
C. Assign drive letter
D. Restore original disk signature
E. Set drive active
F. Verify recovery point before restore
Answer: D,E

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NO.14 Which two drive types can be used as the destination drive in die Copy My Hard Drive Wizard? (Select
two)
A. SATA attached hard drive
B. share on a different Windows Server
C. Blu-ray drive
D. network-attached storage
E. USB attached hard drive
Answer: A,E

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NO.15 Which command line option would be used to divide a recovery point file into separate parts using
Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. -raw [number]
B. -seg (number)
C. -span (number]
D. -set (number]
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-118
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange Technical Assessment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 318 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: ADE.

NO.2 A large enterprise organization requires monitoring. The company will have five Enterprise Vault (EV)
sites and three EV Directories. How many monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three are core Enterprise Vault services? (Select three.)
A. Archiving Service
B. Placeholder Service
C. Directory Service
D. Storage Service
E. Indexing Service
Answer: CDE

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NO.4 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: AC

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NO.5 A global organization plans to deploy Enterprise Vault (EV). The organization has a severe limit on the
connectivity between two sites. Site A supports seven remote offices and Site B supports five remote
offices. A global deployment of EV is unrealistic. How should the organization design around this
obstacle?
A. deploy multiple EV Directories
B. deploy multiple EV sites that share a single directory
C. deploy all EV servers in Site A
D. place the EV Directory database halfway between the sites
Answer: A

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NO.6 An organization has five Enterprise Vault (EV) servers. The servers are part of one Directory and two
EV sites. The Directory consists of two Vault Store Groups with two Vault Stores for each group. How
many EV Directory database(s), Fingerprint database(s), and Vault Store database(s) are in the
environment, respectively?
A. 2, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 1, 4
D. 2, 2, 2
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A. a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B. a geographic configuration reference
C. a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D. a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two core databases should an administrator allocate storage for during the Enterprise Vault
initial installation? (Select two.)
A. Vault Directory Database
B. Vault Store Database
C. Audit Database
D. Monitoring Database
E. Log Database
Answer: AD

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NO.10 What is the function of the Task Controller Service in Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. to interface between other EV tasks and the directory database
B. to manage EV storage of archived data
C. to support the Web Access application
D. to maintain indexes of archived data and to provide results of search requests
E. to manage the various archiving tasks to archive data from targets
Answer: E

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NO.11 An organization has two Enterprise Vault sites. Site 1 contains EVServer01, EVServer02, and
EVServer03 Site 2 contains EVServer04 and EVServer05. Which three USL failover options are possible?
(Select three.)
A. EVServer01 failover to EVServer03
B. EVServer02 failover to EVServer01
C. EVServer02 failover to EVServer04
D. EVServer03 failover to EVServer04
E. EVServer04 failover to EVServer05
Answer: ABE

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NO.12 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users.? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: ABC.

NO.13 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: ABE

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NO.14 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: AC

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NO.15 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: BC

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NO.16 Which two databases are directly associated with Stores in Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are two valid reasons for specifying DNS aliases? (Select two.)
A. to ensure that the Enterprise Vault (EV) server can be joined to the Windows domain
B. to simplify reconfiguration of the EV infrastructure
C. to ensure that the EV server can be contacted from external domains
D. to make it possible to use the EV built-in failover mechanisms
E. to broadcast the EV server's IP address to all clients on the network
Answer: BD

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NO.18 An organization has a security requirement to track changes made to the Enterprise Vault (EV)
environment pertaining to retention categories, archiving policies, and archive permissions. Which tool
provides this data?
A. EV Auditing
B. EV Operation Monitor
C. EV Reporting
D. EV Event Log
Answer: A

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NO.19 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users. Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions
should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.20 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers. How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which component is directly below the Enterprise Vault Directory in the Vault Administration console's
hierarchy?
A. Vault Store Groups
B. Enterprise Vault Targets
C. Enterprise Vault Sites
D. Enterprise Vault Servers
Answer: C

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NO.22 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies. Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving
strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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NO.23 There are multiple Active Directory domains with Exchange servers in each domain. One Enterprise
Vault (EV) server is set up in one domain. Trust is established between the EV domain and the other
domains. What must be done in order for a single EV server to archive the Exchange servers?
A. break the trust between the Active Directory domains
B. configure the EV client to allow trusted domains
C. select the domain boxes in the Archiving Task properties
D. add the Active Directory domains under the Targets container
Answer: D

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NO.24 An administrator is installing Enterprise Vault (EV). Where should the installer place the EV databases
and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.25 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What is a benefit of changing the
default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.26 Given a multi-site installation, which Enterprise Vault (EV) component contains the configuration
information for all the EV sites?
A. Vault Store database
B. Vault Store Group database
C. Vault Directory database
D. Vault Configuration database
Answer: C

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NO.27 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: ABC.

NO.28 What is the purpose of the Enterprise Vault Directory Service?
A. to provide service access to Vault Stores and Archives
B. to manage indexes of archived data
C. to manage selected items to be restored
D. to provide services access to site configuration information
Answer: D

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NO.29 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD

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NO.30 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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