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Exam Code: HP0-S19
Exam Name: Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise
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Last Update: 2014-05-29

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Exam Code: HP2-B93
Exam Name: Customer Comm Mgt-Design and Production
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Exam Code: HP2-E50
Exam Name: Consultative Selling of HP Mission Critical Technical Services
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NO.1 Which features are included in High-Volume Delivery? (Select three.)
A. dynamic output file naming
B. multiple-up support
C. imposition
D. bundling
E. text box flow
F. unlimited page numbering
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 What capability is a prerequisite for the LiveWorkflow module?
A. some type of fulfillment
B. LiveDesign
C. some type of repository
D. Live Editor
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which PDF version does PDF/A-1b Output produce?
A. PDF version1.3
B. PDF version 1.4
C. PDF version 1.5
D. PDF version 1.6
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is an extension of the Postscript printer language.?
A. PDX
B. PCL
C. AFP
D. VIPP
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature does Advanced Campaign Management include?
A. unlimited messages
B. background colors
C. usage charts
D. ability to link campaigns together
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP0-207
Exam Name: Procurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals
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Exam Code: HP2-E45
Exam Name: Technical Introduction to the HP SMB Portfolio
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Exam Code: HP2-E23
Exam Name: Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products
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NO.1 Which characteristics are typical of lower-tier medium businesses? (Select two.)
A. prefer appliance-type solutions
B. have between 10 and 15 servers
C. have anywhere from zero to five full-time IT staff members
D. prefer customized bundles of hardware, software, and services
E. have a high percentage of employees who are Internet- or email-enabled all the time
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which two IT priorities are typically the most important for SMB customers? (Select two.)
A. business continuity
B. cloud services
C. failover capability
D. security
E. redundancy
Answer: B,D

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Reference:http://www.netstandard.com/top-smb-it-priorities-for-2012-cloud-security-and-mobileso
lutions/(4thand5thparagraph)

NO.3 Which description fits the IT staff at a typical SMB?
A. a handful of generalists
B. one owner who assumes all roles
C. outsourced support staff and contractors
D. dedicated administrators for each aspect of the infrastructure
Answer: A

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Reference:http://wtnnews.com/articles/9140/(second paragraph)

NO.4 Which factor is typically the most important for SMBs when considering a technology
purchase?
A. scalability
B. mobility
C. reliability
D. database management
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are analyzing a customer's system in order to determine its hardware availability
requirements. Which attributes of the system should you consider? (Select two)
A. repair response time
B. the need for multiprocessing
C. processor speed
D. length of the average transaction
E. reliability
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 What must you determine first in order to select a server platform that meets customer needs?
A. the number and type of applications the customer is running
B. how many clients are networked
C. how many simultaneous users are present and anticipated
D. which applications are l/O-intensive and which are bandwidth-intensive
Answer: A

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NO.7 HP provides simple, affordable, and reliable ways for SMB customers to build and run their
business. What is an example of this strategy?
A. The HP SMB Servers program provides SMBs with scalable storage, data protection, and disaster
recovery solutions that suit a wide range of needs
B. ProLiant servers make it easy to integrate the heterogeneous environments often found in an
SMB environment
C. ProLiant servers, along with VMware ESX Server 3i capabilities, make it attractive for small
businesses to transition to a managed environment
D. Because SMBs favor standalone solutions. HP positions its hardware, software, networking, and
services offerings accordingly
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.serverwatch.com/trends/article.php/ 3937696 /HP-ProLiant-Servers-Buyers-G
uide.htm

NO.8 Which statements did a Gartner study find to be true about SMBs? (Select two.)
A. The majority of SMB servers are x86 architecture, with single-core or dual-core processor
installations.
B. SMBs tend to run on Linux, HP-UX. and Microsoft operating systems, in nearly equal numbers
C. Approximately two-thirds of SMBs have external RAID
D. Storage area network (SAN) penetration for small businesses is about 80%.
E. On average, small businesses deploy 1 to 4 servers, while medium businesses deploy 19 to 22
servers.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP2-H29
Exam Name: Selling HP Retail Point of Sale Solutions - Exam
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Exam Code: HP3-019
Exam Name: HP Laserjet 4200 / 4300 serleS
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NO.1 What does HP do to reduce clutter of cables in retail solutions?
A. Offers wireless peripherals
B. Adds more features to eliminate peripherals
C. Offers rechargeable peripherals
D. Provides powered ports for peripherals
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.flotech.net/news/hp_unveils_touch_enabled_point_of_sale_system_retail_s
t ores(see second para)

NO.2 Which capability does WES 7 OS provide?
A. Space savings
B. Single-channel content capability
C. Integrated interactive multi-touch
D. Thin bezels
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mwRLE7Fa-wE

NO.3 Why is HP focusing on specific retail and hospitality sub-verticals?
A. because POS is a critical part of their business and these customers are quick to adopt new
technologies
B. because these sub-verticals are likely to already use HP solutions in printing and IT
C. because these sub-verticals represent the most progressive businesses in the retail industry
D. because these sub-verticals are likely to convert to POS technologies in the near term and have
the capital to do it
Answer: D

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NO.4 Due to globalization, consolidation, and format blurring occurring in the retail industry, what
does a retailer need to do in order to remain competitive?
A. Be in the right place with the right offering
B. Offer the same access to information that customers get online
C. Offer an integrated connected experience
D. Enable the consumer to control the shopping experience
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which HP digital signage solutions include HP DreamColor calibration features?
A. HP LD4220tm and LD4729tm digital signage displays
B. HP LD4730 and LD4730G micro-bezel video wall displays
C. HP LD4210 and LD4710 LCD digital signage displays
D. Any HP 47-inch diagonal digital signage display
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h71016.www7.hp.com/dstore/html/pdfs/HP_LD4730_LD4730G_data_sheet_1213
11%20FINAL.pdf(page 1, HP dreamcolor quality)

NO.6 What value consideration does HP POS hardware offer over PCs?
A. Precise graphics capabilities to display exact colors and sharp lines
B. Appropriate number and type of ports to reduce cable clutter
C. Wireless connectivity to enable public wifi hotspots
D. Portability to operate anywhere in the store
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which display has interactive touch-screen capabilities?
A. HP LD4210 and LD4710 LCD digital signage displays
B. HP LD4220tm and LD4729tm digital signage displays
C. HP LD4730 and LD4730G micro-bezel video wall displays any
D. HP 47-inch diagonal digital signage display
Answer: C

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NO.8 Why is HP well positioned for retail?
A. HP is the world's largest technology company.
B. HP offers a total end-to-end portfolio.
C. HP is the first in the industry to offer retail solutions.
D. HP operates in over 170 countries.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J47
Exam Name: Managing StorageWorks P9000 Solutions
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Exam Code: HP0-M23
Exam Name: HP Business Availability Center Foundation
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NO.1 What information does the Status Snapshot Report provide?
A.worst transaction response time, worst availability by location
B.worst transaction response time, worst availability by location
C.worst availability by transaction, worst availability by location, worst availability by application, slowest
applications
D.worst response time by transaction, worst response time by location, worst response time by
application, slowest applications
ANSWER: C

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NO.2 What types of System Health are available?
A.only the BAC built-in System Health is available
B.Operations Center System Health and BAC built-in System Health
C.BAC built-in System Health and enhanced System Health based on Sitescope
D.BAC built-in System Health and enhanced System Health based on Real User Monitor
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 What is the purpose of the Downloads page?
A.a location from which you can download BAC components
B.a location to which you can download tools for use with BAC
C.links to locations from which you can download BAC add-on monitors
D.a location within the BAC directory structure where you can store downloaded software
ANSWER: A

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NO.4 What is the role of the built-in BAC System Health?
A.display in a dashboard view the status of all BAC components
B.measure BAC performance and display BAC resources consumption and usage
C.display in a graphical form all the components of BAC and the relationship between them
D.detect problems with data collectors, BAC database, and the servers on which BAC runs
ANSWER: B

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NO.5 What is the purpose of Infrastructure Settings?
A.to configure the hardware settings of the BAC servers
B.to configure the look and feel of the BAC graphical user interface
C.to define the various settings which determine how BAC and its applications run
D.to configure the binding between BAC and the network interfaces on the BAC servers
ANSWER: C

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NO.6 What is the meaning of the origin attribute that exists in each CI?
A.the BAC user that created the CI
B.the view in which the CI was created
C.the package from which the CIT was deployed
D.the data source or user that added the CI to the CMDB
ANSWER: D

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NO.7 Which alert type can be configured to alert on a specific page, or screen, of a monitored application?
A.SLA alert
B.Paging alert
C.Sitescope alert
D.Event based alert
ANSWER: D

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NO.8 What is the main function of the Report Repository?
A.store reports imported from other applications
B.store reports saved by users at a specific state
C.store reports saved by users with dynamic state
D.store reports specific to the Dashboard component of BAC
ANSWER: B

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Exam Code: HH0-120
Exam Name: Hitachi Data Systems Storage Foundations - Modular Exam
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NO.1 When planning for capacity growth and performance for a new application, which three metrics are
necessary to determine the required back-end storage configuration? (Choose three.)
A. anticipated read/write IOPS
B. cache read hit ratios
C. queue depths
D. transfer rates
E. IOPS per physical disk
Answer:ABE

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NO.2 Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal
Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing. Which two actions should be
considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B. Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer:AB

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NO.3 Which three statements are true regarding Hitachi storage configurations for Microsoft Exchange
Server? (Choose three.)
A. RAID6 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
B. RAID1+0 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
C. RAID5 is the recommended RAID level for the log RAID Groups..
D. LUN concatenation (LUSE) is not recommended.
E. VDEV striping is a recommended configuration for database RAID Groups.
Answer: BDE

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NO.4 A Microsoft Exchange administrator team is responsible for managing five mailbox servers and
maintaining acceptable service level objectives for your organization's email users. Accordingly, they
want to setup Windows Performance Monitor to actively monitor the Exchange servers. Which
Performance Monitor counter should be monitored for the Exchange database LUNs?
A. disk write bytes/second
B. disk read bytes/second
C. IO delays per sec
D. average disk read latency (ms)
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer runs two geographical dispersed data centers and plans to merge both data centers' SANs.
Which three should be considered when planning the ISL installation and configuration? (Choose three.)
A. distance
B. ISL trunk setup/configuration
C. estimated throughput
D. fabric trunk setup/configuration
E. buffer credits
Answer: ABC

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NO.6 In IOSTAT, which two Solaris metrics are used to determine the average read block size to a device?
(Choose two.)
A. reads per second (r/s)
B. kilobytes read per second (kr/s)
C. block size (bs)
D. read block size (rbs)
Answer:AB

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose
three.)
A. insufficient cache
B. loss of redundancy in write cache
C. heavy random writes to RAID5
D. heavy random writes to SATA drives
E. failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
Answer: CDE

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NO.8 Which HDS product is used to define and report Logical Group configurations?
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B. Hitachi Device Manager
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Storage Services Manager
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are correct regarding the antivirus scanning function on the FortiGate
unit?
A.Antivirus scanning can be configured to block certain file types and patterns.
B.Antivirus scanning provides end-to-end virus protection for client workstations.
C.Antivirus scanning provides virus protection for the HTTP, Telnet, SMTP, and FTP protocols.
D.Antivirus scanning supports banned word checking.
E.Antivirus scanning supports grayware protection.
Answer:AE

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NO.2 When viewing the Banned User tab in User Monitor in Web Config, the administrator notes the entry
illustrated in the exhibit. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this entry?
A.The entry displays a ban that has been added as a result of traffic triggering a configured DLP rule.
B.The entry displays a ban that was triggered by HTTP traffic matching an IPS signature. This client is
banned from receiving or sending any traffic through the FortiGate.
C.The entry displays a quarantine, which could have been added by either IPS or DLP.
D.This entry displays a ban entry that was added manually by the administrator on Dec 24th.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which part of an email message exchange is not inspected by the POP3 and IMAP proxies?
A.TCP connection
B.Protocol commands
C.Message headers
D.Message body
Answer: A

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internet can frustrate the efforts of administrators attempting to monitor traffic passing through the
FortiGate unit and ensuring user compliance to corporate rules.
Which of the following items will allow the administrator to control the transfer of encrypted data through
the FortiGate unit?
A.Encrypted protocols can be scanned through the use of the SSL proxy.
B.DLP rules can be used to block the transmission of encrypted files.
C.Firewall authentication can be enabled in the firewall policy, preventing the use of encrypted
communications channels.
D.Application control can be used to monitor the use of encrypted protocols; alerts can be sent to the
administrator through email when the use of encrypted protocols is attempted.
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which of the following items are considered to be advantages of using the application control features
on the FortiGate unit?
A.Application control provides application detection regardless of the port used by the application.
B.Application control allows session-ttl to be customized for specific application types.
C.Application control allows custom application types to be added in a similar way to adding custom IPS
signatures.
D.Application control allows an administrator to check which applications are installed on workstations
attempting to access the network.
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which of the following describes the difference between the ban and quarantine actions?
A.A ban action prevents future transactions using the same protocol which triggered the ban. A qarantine
action blocks all future transactions, regardless of the protocol.
B.A ban action blocks the transaction. A quarantine action archives the data.
C.A ban action has a finite duration. A quarantine action must be removed by an administrator.
D.A ban action is used for known users. A quarantine action is used for unknown users.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A DLP rule with an action of Exempt has been matched against traffic passing through the FortiGate
unit. Which of the following statements is correct regarding how this transaction will be handled by the
FortiGate unit?
A.Any other matched DLP rules will be ignored with the exception of Archiving.
B.Any other matched DLP rules are ignored.
C.The traffic matching the DLP rule will bypass antivirus scanning.
D.The client IP address will be added to a white list.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following describes the best custom signature for detecting the use of the word "Fortinet" in
chat applications.?
The sample packet trace illustrated in the exhibit provides details on the packet that requires detection.
A.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --no_case; )
B.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "fortinet"; --no_case; )
C.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --within 20;
--no_case; )
D.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --within
20; )
Answer:A

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NO.1 If the output file of a XOG write shows an updated record, what does it mean?
A. The object or instance did not exist in the database.
B. The object or instance was deleted from the database.
C. The object or instance already existed in the database.
D. The object or instance did not have a unique ID in the database.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which standard view is used to configure the grid listing of all the instances of an object that the user
has rights to see?
A. List Filter View
B. Properties View
C. List Column View
D. Edit Layouts View
Answer: C

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NO.3 You need to check the NTFS permissions for the folder in which the CA Productivity Accelerator (CAPA)
developer application files are installed. Which permissions should be set for this folder.? (Choose three)
A. List
B. Read
C. Delete
D. Modify
E. Execute
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 In CA Clarity, you can group related pages under a single menu item using:
A. portlet pages
B. pages with tabs
C. pages without tab
D. pages with a Content action
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which functions apply to an NQSL query? (Choose two)
A. Execute XOG writes.
B. Filter on instances or object code.
C. Feed portlets with the required data.
D. Fetch data from multiple tables and offer it as a Web Service.
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NO.1 There are two fields on the Resource Profile that must be set appropriately to help ensure a resource
can enter time through the CA Clarity timesheets. What are the two fields?
A. Category and Active
B. Track Mode and Category
C. Track Mode and Open for Time Entry
D. Open for Time Entry and Employee Type
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you set the
status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the project.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the three classifications of Chargeback rules? (Choose three)
A. Recovery rules
B. Overhead rules
C. Time-based rules
D. Standard Debit rules
E. Investment-specific Debit rules
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 CA Clarity PPM and the supported scheduling tools enable you to plan detailed schedules by adjusting
variables that affect how work is scheduled. Which variable determines the distribution of work over a
period.?
A. Task Type
B. Start - Finish
C. Loading Pattern
D. Resource Max Load Percentage
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option
Answer: C

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NO.1 You want to secure the communication between the Calendar service in OS X Server and its
Calendar clients in OS X Mountain Lion. In Server app, which of these can you use to achieve
your goal?
A. A complex global password policy
B. An SSH tunnel
C. An SSL certificate and the HTTPS protocol
D. A Kerberos Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT)
Answer: C

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NO.2 In OS X Mountain Lion, which TWO types of file service hosts can you browse in the Network
folder? (Select 2)
A. WebDAV
B. SMB
C. DFS
D. FTP
E. AFP
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 Which statement best describes how Time Machine stores files from an OS X Mountain Lion
computer, when backing up to a directly-connected FireWire hard disk drive?
A. Each file is saved to the external hard disk once. File changes are stored in a database on the
external hard disk.
B. Each file is rewritten to the external hard disk during each backup.
C. Each file is saved to the external hard disk once. Files that do not change between backups are
represented by hard linksto save space.
D. Each file is saved to the external hard disk once. Files that do not change between backups are
represented by symbolic links tosave space.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the minimum amount of RAM required to install and run OS X Server on an OS X
Mountain Lion computer?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 6 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: A

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NO.5 What advantage is gained by configuring the Contacts service in OS X Server to provide LDAP
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A. It lets admins integrate Microsoft Exchange Server with the Contacts service.
B. It enables third-party contact management apps to be integrated with the Contacts service.
C. It eliminates the need for users to configure the Contacts app to perform LDAP searches.
D. It lets the Contacts service sync contact modifications to the LDAP server.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement best describes the function of Gatekeeper?
A. To prevent users from opening untrusted applications.
B. To prevent users from downloading untrusted applications.
C. To prevent users from installing untrusted applications.
D. To prevent users from installing viruses and trojan horses.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a user logs in, which task is NOT performed by the user's loginwindow or launchd
processes?
A. Launch items in /Library/LaunchDaemons.
B. Launch Dock and Finder.
C. Launch Login Items specified in Users & Groups preferences.
D. Configure input device and system settings according to System Preferences.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement about Gatekeeper is TRUE?
A. Gatekeeper can ONLY be disabled using a configuration profile.
B. Standard users can bypass Gatekeeper.
C. Only the root user can disable Gatekeeper.
D. Only administrator users can bypass Gatekeeper.
Answer: D

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NO.1 .To set up PPPoE, which port must you configure?
A. AppleTalk
B. Ethernet
C. FireWire
D. Modem
Answer: B

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NO.2 .By default in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of which folders in a user home directory can be
accessed by all other user accounts? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Documents
B. Library
C. Public
D. Music
E. Sites
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 .If Robert disables AppleTalk in the Directory Access utility on his iMac running Mac OS X v 10.3,
what is the result?
A. Robert cannot print to AppleTalk printers from his iMac.
B. Users on other computers cannot connect to Robert's iMac via AFP.
C. Robert iMac no longer discovers servers via AppleTalk.
D. Robert cannot connect to an AFP file server from his iMac.
Answer: C

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NO.4 .Mac OS X v10.3 supports which kinds of VPN connections? (Choose all that apply.)
A. PPoE
B. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. NAT
E. P2P
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 .Mac OS X v10.3 Internet Sharing lets you share your Internet connection with other users via
________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. AirPort
B. Ethernet
C. Bluetooth
D. Modem
E. USB
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 .Which statement about FileVault is TRUE?
A. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user accounts.
B. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled.
C. There is no way to recover a FileVault-protected account user data if the password is lost.
D. When a user enables FileVault, that user home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk
image.
Answer: D

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NO.7 .You are currently in the same directory as a file called "file 1". To view this file contents from the
command line you can type ________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. cat file 1
B. cat file\1
C. cat file \1
D. cat file\ 1
E. cat "file 1"
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 In Mac OS X v10.3, you CANNOT use the Finder's "Connect to Server" command to select
________.
A. your iDisk
B. SSH servers
C. WebDAV servers
D. AFP servers
Answer: B

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NO.1 A subscriber-host gets an IP address from the RG using SLAAC and all prefixes are centrally
managed.
How does the RG receive the correct information?
A. The RG receives the prefix from the BNG using SLAAC.
B. The RG receives the prefix information encapsulated in a DHCPv4 message.
C. The RG receives the IA_PD in a DHCPv6 message.
D. The RG receives the IA_NA in a DHCPv6 message.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following elements is part of the access network?
A. IP phone
B. RG
C. BSAN
D. BNG
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which network element will add the PPPoE Relay Tag?
A. RG
B. BSAN
C. BSA
D. BNG
Answer: B

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NO.4 How many queues per subscriber can be allocated using a high-speed Media Dependent
Adapter (HS-MDA)?
A. 64 ingress or egress queues
B. 16 ingress and 16 egress queues
C. 8 ingress and 8 egress queues
D. 8 ingress or egress queues
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the ultimate goal of Triple Play services?
A. To bring Ethernet technologies to the subscriber's home.
B. To assist providers in managing their IP networks.
C. To move HSI, voice, and video onto a converged IP core.
D. To accelerate the deployment of MPLS in the provider network.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Assume a subscriber only requested one multicast group. Which feature should be enabled
on the BSAN to ensure the subscriber only receives data from the multicast group requested?
A. IGMP proxy
B. IGMP snooping
C. MC replicator
D. IGMP querier
Answer: B

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NO.7 What information is typically present in the option 82 attribute of the DHCP Discover message
relayed from an Alcatel-Lucent BSAN?
A. Agent user ID
B. Agent circuit ID
C. Agent vendor ID
D. Agent BSAN ID
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is correct in a VLAN per all services for all subscribers?
A. One port per BSAN
B. One port per service
C. One SAP per service
D. One SAP per BSAN
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal
Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system
Answer: BCFG

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NO.4 How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or
restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
CoS
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more
telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first,
then to the next extension, until the call is
Answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call
Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by
the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system
Answer: BCDF

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NO.7 Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX
Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Answer: ACDE

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NO.8 Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems?
(Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN
link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can
call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from
HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a
Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites
via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Answer: ADE

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NO.1 High availability (HA) nodes identify one another by their __________ names.
A.Identifier
B.Host
C.mib-system-name
D.target
Answer:D

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NO.2 When associating network interfaces to a physical interface on the Net-Net 4000, the ___________
fields must contain the same unique ID.
A.sub-port-id
B.name
C.unique-id
D.identifier
Answer:B

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NO.3 Best current practice for the initial turn-up of a secondary node in a highly available (HA) pair calls for
the acquire-config command targeting the ____________________interface on the primary node.
A.Wancom0
B.Wancom1
C.Wancom2
D.Wancom3
Answer:A

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NO.4 The default baud rate for console connections to the Net-Net 4000 is ____________.
A.115200
B.2400
C.9600
D.56600
Answer:A

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NO.5 To view an existing multiple instance element configuration you can go to the correct branch of the
configuration tree and _______________.
A.select the element and then issue the show command
B.enter the name of the element and then issue the show command
C.type show and select from the displayed list
D.type show
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which two of the following statements about SIP response code handling on the Net-Net 4000 are
TRUE?
A.The Net-Net 4000 will originate a 403 Forbidden response when bandwidth allocated to a realm has
been exhausted.
B.The Net-Net 4000 cannot originate 3xx class redirect responses.
C.The Net-Net 4000 egress realm selection may be affected by received third party 3xx class redirect
responses
D.The Net-Net 4000 can transmit a different SIP response code than it received.
Answer:C D

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NO.7 In a(n) __________ exchange, a Master Slave Determination message is an example of a type of
message that might be exchanged during the media setup portion of the call.
A.RAS
B.ISDN
C.H.245
D.H.225
Answer:C

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NO.8 The Net-Net 4000 is the source and destination for all signaling messages and media streams coming
into and leaving the provider's network. Which two of the following SIP functions does it provide?
A.edge proxy
B.registrar
C.Back to Back User Agent
D.media gateway
Answer:A C

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