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Exam Code: HP2-T28
Exam Name: HP BladeSystem Administration
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Last Update: 2014-06-30

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Exam Code: HP0-J33
Exam Name: Implementing HP
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NO.1 A customer has an HP BladeSystem c7000 enclosure with four power supplies.
The power supplies are in bays 1, 2, 3, and 4.
The customer wants to configure the enclosure to have AC redundant power while minimizing costs.
What should the customer do?
A. Move the power supply from bay 1 to bay 5.
B. Move the power supply from bay 3 to bay 5.
C. Insert a new power supply in bay 5.
D. Insert a new power supply in bay 6.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How does Dynamic Power Capping control the power utilization in an enclosure?
A. It determines whether power supplies are active or standby and regulates their utilization.
B. It adjusts fan and disk speeds to maintain predetermined power use levels.
C. It uses processor p-states to adjust power consumption and performance.
D. It prevents servers from powering up if their power usage would exceed the enclosure power
limit.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the three bit settings on interconnects for Thermal Logic management on the HP
BladeSystem C7000 enclosure? (Select three.)
A. Warm
B. Good
C. Alert
D. Cool
E. Hot
F. Critical
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 What is a requirement for double-chip sparing on HP Integrity blades?
A. Proactive memory scrubbing
B. CPUs installed in pairs
C. 4 DIMMs, 4 GB or larger
D. 8 DIMMs, 2 GB or smaller
Answer: A

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Reference:
https://h10139.www1.hp.com/h41111 /rfg_formprocessor/hp_ess_ngmc/es/es/pdf/ 4AA20982ENW
_RAS%20Features.pdf (page 4, double-chip memory sparing)x

NO.5 Which BladeSystem Interconnect module supports FCoE Data Center Bridging?
A. HP VC 8Gb 24-port FC
B. Virtual Connect Flex-10/10D
C. HP 4X FDR InfiniBand Managed Switch
D. HP FIex-10 10Gb
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three actions can be taken from the Onboard Administrator (OA) First Time Setup
Wizard? (Select three.)
A. initial server profile configuration
B. enclosure bay IP addressing
C. activate Single Sign-On use
D. set the lockout PIN
E. configure SNMP settings
F. create local user accounts
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.7 Where are the Service Pack for ProLiant (SPP) Hot Fixes and Customer Advisories available
online? (Select two.)
A. SPP Blades subset version page
B. SPP Information Library
C. SPP fully bootable ISO
D. SPP Release Archive page
E. SPP download web page
Answer: A,E

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Reference: http://h18004.www1.hp.com/products/servers/service_packs/en/ca.2013.09.0(B).html

NO.8 What is a feature of the HP D2220sb PCIe storage blade?
A. support for an onboard P410i controller, write cache optional
B. support for up to 24 solid state drives 9
C. support for up to 12 small form factor drives
D. integration with 2Gb, 4Gb, or 8Gb Fibre Channel
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J16
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Exam Code: HP2-Z30
Exam Name: Fast Track - Applying HP FlexNetwork Fundamentals
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Exam Code: HP0-794
Exam Name: Implementing Windows Server 2003 on HP ProLiant Cluster Solutions
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NO.1 What is a common method for handling multiple reporting and monitoring functions?
A. Use graphical reports to enhance interpretation.
B. Combine all information into one report for simplicity.
C. Separate low-level information reporting from higher-level analysis and decision making.
D. Use intelligent interfaces to offload reporting and decision-making from management software.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which tasks are associated with controlling a target in a storage infrastructure management
environment?
A. discover, track, diagnose, and predict
B. diagnose, predict, repair, and migrate
C. configure, provision, repair, and migrate
D. report, bill, analyze, diagnose, and predict
Answer: C

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NO.3 To which category of target-based management tools does HP Systems Insight Manager belong?
A. system management
B. network management
C. storage systems management
D. operating system management
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the processing requirements of Information Lifecycle Management? (Select two.)
A. fast
B. secure
C. auditable
D. transparent
E. easy to use
Answer: CD

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NO.5 Which features are provided by Information Lifecycle Management? (Select two.)
A. measures to protect data from corruption through its life cycle
B. technologies and processes to dispose of outdated storage equipment
C. technologies and processes to organize data based on size and sensitivity
D. processes that enforce data-retention policies and make decisions about appropriate data storage
environments
E. technologies and processes that determine how to store, manage, and communicate information
according to its business value
Answer: DE

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NO.6 Which target-based management software is expected to be provided with the storage component?
A. OS management suites
B. system management suites
C. network management suites
D. device-specific management tools
Answer: D

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NO.7 Because Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) interfaces with activities and people, there is a
potential overlap between ILM and other areas. Which area is likely to overlap with ILM?
A. IT Budget Planning
B. IT Project Management
C. Business Financial Planning
D. Business Process Management
Answer: D

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NO.8 In the context of storage infrastructure management, what is the definition of the term target?
A. a goal set for errors on a device
B. an entity that needs management
C. a disk or tape connected to a SCSI bus
D. a vendor-specific management tool that connects to a device
Answer: B

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Exam Name: CompTIA Strata IT for Sales
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Exam Code: HT0-201
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Exam Code: N10-005
Exam Name: Network + Certification Exam
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NO.1 Which of the following devices is used to provide visual input that can be easily transferred over the
internet?
A. Solid-state drive
B. Webcam
C. Iomega Zip drive
D. Trackball
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following ports support hot swapping?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Parallel
B. Serial
C. IEEE 1394
D. USB
Answer: D and C

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NO.3 Which of the following organizations developed the hyper-threading technology?
A. Microsoft
B. Intel
C. Cisco
D. HP
Answer: B

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NO.4 In which of the following sizes are the ExpressCard modules available?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ExpressCard/54
B. ExpressCard/34
C. ExpressCard/43
D. ExpressCard/45
Answer: B and A

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NO.5 Which of the following is the most common laptop battery found today?
A. NiCad
B. Lithium-Ion
C. NiMH
D. Energizer
Answer: B

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NO.6 Sam works as a Network Administrator for company.com. The company has forty Windows XP based
systems. Sam has been assigned a task to remove malware from the corrupted systems. Which of the
following will he remove to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Hardware
B. Spyware
C. Trojan horses
D. Adware
Answer: D, B, and C

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NO.7 What is the other name of a palmtop?
A. PDA
B. Desktop
C. Laptop
D. Tablet
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the other name for Firewire.?
A. IEEE 1395
B. IEEE 1394
C. IEEE 1396
D. IEEE 1397
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LX0-102
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NO.1 Which smb.conf configuration keyword determines the hostname resolution order?
A. use ads
B. name resolve order
C. use nsswitch.conf
D. use resolv.conf
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are true when creating NETBIOS names? (Select TWO correct
answers.)
A. NETBIOS names can only use alphanumeric characters.
B. You can use a '.' in a NETBIOS name.
C. You can use an '_' (underscore) in a NETBIOS name.
D. NETBIOS names must be UPPERCASE
E. NETBIOS names can be a maximum of 32 characters
Answer: B, C

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NO.3 When migrating files from a Windows server A to a Samba server B with the command 'net rpc share
migrate files -S A -destination=B -acls -attrs -U administrator', some files that originally belong only to a
Windows group (no user) will generate errors during the migration. Which option in smb.conf will force
such files to be mapped to the correct UNIX UID and GID?
A. use acl = yes
B. map group acls = yes
C. force unknown acl user = yes
D. inherit acls = no
Answer: C

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NO.4 After installing a network with one Samba server and several clients, users are complaining that they
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cause of this?
A. The user entered the wrong username and/or password.
B. The nmbd process is not running on the Samba server.
C. The user hasn't mapped the share to a local drive letter yet.
D. The Samba server is not configured as a Domain Master Browser.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In /etc/smbldap-tools/ which file contains the DN and password for the LDAP manager?
A. smbldap.conf
B. ldap.conf
C. smbldap_bind.conf
D. slapd.conf
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the meaning of a NetBIOS hybrid node (h-node) type client?
A. Client performs a broadcast and does not query WINS.
B. Client queries WINS first, and then broadcasts.
C. Client broadcasts first, and then queries WINS.
D. Client only queries WINS and does not broadcast.
E. Client only queries lmhost local file.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What DHCP option can be set on a ISC DHCP server to tell NETBIOS clients that the WINS server
has the IP address 192.168.1.2?
A. option netbios-wins-servers 192.168.1.2;
B. option wins-netbios-servers 192.168.1.2;
C. option wins-name-servers 192.168.1.2;
D. option netbios-name-servers 192.168.1.2;
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following should be backed up before a Samba version upgrade? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. Libraries
B. TDB files
C. Configuration files
D. Binaries
E. winbindd_privileged directory
Answer: B, C

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Exam Code: 1D0-571
Exam Name: CIW v5 Security Essentials
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1D0-571 Study Guide Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 You are creating a Web page. You want to ensure that users who have older browsers that cannot
display JavaScript can still view your page. How should you proceed?
A. Save the JavaScript to a separate file with a .txt extension.
B. Write the script in an additional scripting language.
C. Use the HTML comment tag around the JavaScript code inside <SCRIPT> tags.
D. Use the alert tag.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Raul is creating a Web page. Without a client-server interaction, he wants to ensure that a client enters
data into some specific form fields. Which language should Raul use to accomplish this task?
A. LiveWire
B. HTML
C. Client-side JavaScript
D. Server-side JavaScript
Answer: C

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NO.3 How many cookies are permitted per domain on a user's hard drive?
A. An unlimited number of cookies are permitted.
B. The number of cookies is limited by the amount of disk space allocated in user preferences.
C. Twenty cookies per domain are permitted.
D. The limit varies and is determined by the system administrator at the user's site.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which special character in JavaScript is interpreted as a tab?
A. \\
B. \t
C. \b
D. \f
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which one of the following choices describes a type of information that a cookie can readily provide?
A. The current licensing status of the software on the user's hard drive
B. The addresses of all e-mail recipients with which the user has corresponded
C. The current buying habits of the user
D. A history of the sites that the user has visited
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A06
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix Provisioning Server 5.0
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Exam Code: 1Y0-A26
Exam Name: Citrix XenServer 6.0 Administration
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NO.1 In which three situations would an administrator need to mount a vDisk? (Choose three.)
A.Creating a vDisk file
B.Changing the image mode of the vDisk
C.Editing the contents of a vDisk image file
D.Viewing the contents of a vDisk image file
E.Formatting the vDisk file so that an image can be written to it
Answer:C D E

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NO.2 An administrator must use the __________ to change previous versions of vDisks to the new Virtual
Hard Disk format. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A..PVP file
B.DATABASE.MDB
C.UPGRADEAGENT.EXE
D.VHDCONVERTER.EXE
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which step must an administrator take before configuring administrative roles within a Provisioning
Server environment?
A.Create an administrative service account
B.Create the administrative groups in Active Directory
C.Grant the farm administrator db_admin rights in SQL
D.Add the currently logged in user to the local administrator group
Answer:B

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NO.4 Scenario: An administrator completed the vDisk creation process as well as the creation of several
target devices. The administrator took the necessary steps for Active Directory integration including
enabling Active Directory machine account password management for the vDisk and enabling automatic
password support for the server. The administrator also made sure that the Master Target Device was
added to the correct domain. However, the administrator is unable to log on to the domain from any of the
target devices when attempting to stream the vDisk. Which step should the administrator take to
troubleshoot this issue?
A.Verify that the vDisk is in standard image mode
B.Reset all the machine accounts in Active Directory
C.Create a machine account for each target device in Active Directory
D.Run the Image Optimization Wizard and deselect the disable machine account password changes
option
Answer:C

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NO.5 Scenario: In the headquarters of a training delivery organization, multiple training rooms are located in
two separate buildings. The organization delivers different training classes each week and needs to
provide different base configurations depending on the class content. How can an administrator configure
the Provisioning Server farm so that the organization can re-purpose each classroom for a specific class?
A.Create two farms with sites for each training class offered
B.Create two stores with a vDisk pool for each training class offered
C.Create two device collections within a single site for each training class offered
D.Create two sites with device collections representing each training class offered
Answer:D

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NO.6 An administrator must __________ a newly formatted vDisk before assigning it to a Master Target
Device for imaging. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A.mount
B.unmount
C.release the lock on
D.designate a drive letter assignment for
Answer:B

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NO.7 An administrator is preparing a Master Target Device for imaging. What should the administrator do
before installing the target device software on the Master Target Device?
A.Turn on spanning tree
B.Configure the network adapter BIOS
C.Run the Provisioning Server Image Builder
D.Enable hibernation and power management features
Answer:B

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NO.8 Scenario: An administrator wants to delegate management of a Provisioning Server farm. The
administrator needs to delegate only these specific tasks: 1. Shut down target devices 2. Boot target
devices 3. Send messages to target devices Which role should the administrator assign for these tasks?
A.Device Operator
B.Site Administrator
C.Farm Administrator
D.Device Administrator
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A05
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows Server 2008
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Exam Code: 1Y0-A11
Exam Name: Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.0
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NO.1 Scenario: An administrator set up a NetScaler system in a one-arm mode configuration with high
availability. The system failed over unexpectedly. Which two occurences could be causing this issue?
(Choose two.)
A.An interface is down
B.Layer 2 mode is disabled
C.An SSL acceleration card is down
D.The heartbeat is being sent every two seconds
Answer:A C

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NO.2 The primary node of a NetScaler high availability (HA) pair failed over immediately at start up during
the initial testing of the system. Which configuration step can the administrator take to prevent this from
happening again?
A.Disable monitoring on all connected interfaces
B.Enable node monitoring on all primary node interfaces
C.Run the "force HA sync" command from the primary node
D.Execute the "disable interface" command for all unused interfaces
Answer:D

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NO.3 How can an administrator configure a health check for a server receiving HTTP traffic so that it monitors
the responses of the server to actual client requests as opposed to probes whenever possible?
A.Use the default TCP monitor
B.Configure an HTTP-ECV monitor
C.Configure an HTTP-Inline monitor
D.Use the TCP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
E.Configure an HTTP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
Answer:C

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NO.4 A company is planning on implementing NetScaler systems in high availability pairs. Which entry in the
NS.CONF file of the secondary system needs to be unique from those of the primary system?
A.VMAC
B.VIP address
C.MIP address
D.NSIP address
Answer:D

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NO.5 Scenario: An administrator needs to create a health check that will mark an HTTP service down if the
bound monitor probe fails. The administrator wants to create a monitor and configure the health check so
that a trap is sent if the monitor probe reply exceeds 20 milliseconds. How can the administrator create
the monitor for this health check using the command line interface?
A.set mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
B.add lb mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
C.set mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
D.add lb mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
Answer:D

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NO.6 Scenario: A multinational company operates in areas where there is significant threat of natural
disaster. The administrator decides to create redundancy in their network because of a continuous power
outage threat at the South America site. The company also has two sites in North America, one near New
York and the other near the San Andreas fault line, a site of frequent earthquakes and tremors. The
company also has a site in Tokyo, Japan, which experiences several natural disaster threats. The
company plans to use a NetScaler system for load balancing and to prevent interruption of network
services because of a local natural or human disaster. Would a high availability (HA) deployment resolve
the issue described in the scenario, and if so, how should the HA nodes be paired? Click the Task button
to answer. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item. Answer &
Explanation Correct Answer Explanations No more information available
Answer:

NO.7 Which event would trigger a failover in a high availability pair?
A.The primary appliance reboots.
B.A forced synchronization event fails.
C.A monitored interface fails on the secondary node.
D.The default gateway does not return a heartbeat packet from the primary node.
Answer:A

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NO.8 An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a 7000 NetScaler system when __________.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B.redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C.the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 1 Gb/sec
D.the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 8 Gb/sec
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 1Y0-800
Exam Name: Citrix EdgeSight 4.5: Admin, Perf.Mon and Load Testing
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Exam Code: 1Y0-259
Exam Name: Citrix Presentation Server 4.5: Administration
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Exam Code: 1Y0-A21
Exam Name: Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.2
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NO.1 After an initial EdgeSight Agent installation, the administrator must __________. (Choose the correct
phrase to complete the sentence.)
A.backup the EdgeSight database
B.restart the Citrix Licensing service
C.reboot the device onto which the EdgeSight Agent is installed
D.use the Citrix EdgeSight Post-Installation Setup Wizard to perform initial configurations
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator is creating a new user account which Reporting Services will use to connect to the
ReportServer Database.
Which two steps should the administrator complete when creating the new user account? (Choose two.)
A.Add the user account to a defined group.
B.Define security parameters for the user account.
C.Set a non-expiring password for the user account.
D.Grant the user account database access privileges.
Answer: C D

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NO.3 Which three configurations does the web server component of the EdgeSight Server require? (Choose
three.)
A.ASP.NET allowed in IIS
B.Network COM+ access enabled
C.IIS_WPG users active and enabled
D.Active Server Pages (ASP) enabled
E.Microsoft SQL with mixed-mode authentication
Answer: A B C

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NO.4 An administrator is going through the Post-Installation Wizard for an EdgeSight Server. The
administrator decides that the EdgeSight Agent will be deployed to user devices in the company.
Which option should the administrator select for the Server Mode to meet the needs of the scenario?
A.EndPoint Support Only
B.Server and EndPoint Support
C.Presentation Server Support Only
D.Presentation Server and EndPoint Support
Answer: A

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NO.5 Scenario: Following miscommunication during a rollout of new hard drives and memory, some devices
in theenvironment were not upgraded as planned. The IT Manager asked the administrator to identify the
devices thatwere upgraded.
Which type of report would the administrator use to obtain the necessary information?
A.Remote
B.Asset Change
C.Memory Upgrade
D.System Comparison
Answer: B

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NO.6 What does an administrator need to do in order to enable secure communications from EdgeSight
Agents to server?
A.Select to enable SSL Support.
B.Select to disable SSL Support.
C.Install and configure third-party VPN.
D.Turn on the firewall on the agent device.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When installing Citrix EdgeSight for Presentation Server Agents, which two items must be specified to
ensure that the EdgeSight Agent will be able to report to the EdgeSight Server without any errors?
(Choose two.)
A.Certificate authorities
B.Agent/Server communciation port
C.SNMP port the EdgeSight Server is using
D.Company name exactly as it appears in the EdgeSight Console
Answer: B D

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NO.8 An administrator needs to configure the agent to look for new alerts and/or new worker schedules more
than once a day.
Which worker configuration does the administrator need to configure to meet the requirements of the
scenario?
A.Asset History
B.Configuration Check
C.Fault Report Cleanup
D.Database Maintenance
Answer: B

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NO.1 When do change requests generally increase in a project?
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B. Towards the beginning of the project.
C. During the project scope management processes.
D. Towards the end of the project.
Answer: D

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B. Confirm that he has the authority to host the presentation.
C. Confirm that the stakeholders have signed off on the requirements.
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NO.3 The business analysis approach generally defines all of the following attributes except for which one?
A. Requirements for solutions acceptance
B. Deliverables
C. Team roles
D. Analysis technique
Answer: A

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which have been approved. What is management asking you to create?
A. A change management system
B. A repository
C. A project scope statement
D. A requirements register
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are the business analyst for your organization and are working with Jennifer to conduct
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the stakeholder analysis process. Jennifer is not familiar with this chart and asks what does RACI mean.
Which one of the following best describes the RACI chart in the conduct stakeholder analysis process?
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B. It's a role and responsibility chart that identifies when stakeholders are needed in the business analyst
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C. It's a matrix that uses Role, Action, Consult, and Inform as part of the conduct stakeholder analysis
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D. It's a rule that the business analyst can use to identify all of the needed stakeholders: roles, actions,
communications, and interest.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What type of a business analysis approach focuses on the rapid delivery of business value in short
iterations?
A. Risk-driven
B. Change-driven
C. Risk-laden
D. Profit-driven
Answer: B

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Which of the following should be included in the solution scope definition?
A. Business case
B. Technical dependencies
C. Elicitation techniques
D. Organization readiness assessment
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the term used to describe the cost of the solution after the solution has been implemented in
production by a vendor?
A. Total ownership costing
B. Lifecycle maintenance fees
C. Sustainability fees
D. Total cost of ownership
Answer: D

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targeting?
A. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific languages.
B. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to select keywords related to the products for sale
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C. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific demographics.
D. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to insert ads into a series of related We bsites.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Jeffrey has an online store that caters to collectors of antique pins based on comic book characters.
His audience is small, but dedicated. If you were advising Jeffrey about his online advertising sales, which
of the following would be the best strategy considering Jeffrey's audience?
A. Use the Google Content Network for niche placements.
B. Use the Google Content Network with automatic placements based on hundreds of comic-book based
keywords.
C. Use Google AdWords for search marketing.
D. Use Google AdWords with hundreds of comic-book based keywords.
Answer: A

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NO.3 In the Google Content Network, there are three bidding strategies that a Google AdWords advertiser
may use. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three bidding strategies in the
Google Content Network?
A. Cost-per-acquisition bidding
B. Cost-per-month bidding
C. Cost-per-click bidding
D. Cost-per-thousand bidding
Answer: B

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NO.4 Fred is a Google AdWords consultant for his client. He is explaining to his client that there are actually
three ways to add managed placements to an ad group. Which one of the following is NOT one of the
three methods Fred can use to add managed placements to an ad group?
A. Manually adding
B. Browsing the Web for placements with the Google AdWords toolbar
C. Copying from the automatic placement table
D. Using the Placement tool
Answer: B

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NO.5 Mary Jane wants to use the view-through conversion tracking feature in Google AdWords. How long
must Mary Jane's ad run before she can use this feature accurately?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 24 hours
D. 7 days
Answer: A

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NO.6 Allen is managing ads for his company and he'd like to include the ads in the Google Content Network.
Where does Allen configure automatic placements of ads in the Google Content Network for his
campaigns?C
A. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
B. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Networks" tab.
C. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Ad Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
D. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Opportunities" tab.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following bidding strategies will you use if you are focused on a particular customer action,
such as leads or purchases?
A. CPA bidding
B. CPM bidding
C. Manual CPC bidding
D. Automatic CPC bidding
Answer: A

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NO.8 Bob is reviewing his Google AdWords for the Google Content Network, which has been running for the
past sixty days. Bob is interested in the view-through conversion tracking. What is viewthrough
conversion tracking.?
A. It's the number of conversions that have happened after a user saw, but didn't click, Bob's ad.
B. It's the number of conversions that have happened from a video ad.
C. It's the conversion rate for ads in the Google Content Network.
D. It's the cost of conversions that have happened after a user saw Bob's ad online.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which is an advantage of using the Healing Brush tool instead of the Clone Stamp tool?
A. You can specify a clone source in a different file.
B. You can scale and rotate the sample source.
C. You can specify multiple clone sources.
D. You can match the texture of the original image.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A three-layer file consists of a background image and two text layers. You want to align both the text
layers and the image to the horizontal center. What should you do?
A. Using the Move tool, select all three layers in the Layers palette and click the Align Horizontal Centers
icon on the Options bar.
B. Using the Move tool, select all three layers in the Layers palette and click the Distribute Horizontal
Centers icon on the Options bar.
C. Using the Move tool, select the upper text layer and the image layer in the Layers palette and click the
Align Horizontal Centers icon on the Options bar.
D. Using the Horizontal Type tool, select the lower text layer and the image layer in the Layers palette and
click the Center Text icon on the Options bar.
Answer:A

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NO.3 You are applying a Levels adjustment layer to an RGB image. What happens to the image when you
move the Middle Input slider to the left?
A. The overall image becomes darker.
B. The overall image becomes brighter.
C. Only the shadows become brighter.
D. Only the highlights become darker.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You want to mask the background of a photograph. The background layer of the photograph is
unlocked. You select the background with the Magic Wand tool. Which two methods should you use?
(Choose two.)
A. Press OPTION (Mac) or ALT (Windows) and click the mask icon in the Layers palette.
B. Choose Layer > Layer Mask > Hide Selection from the Layers pull-down menu.
C. Choose Layer > Layer Mask > Reveal Selection from the Layers pull-down menu.
D. Choose Hide Layers from the Layers pull-down menu.
E. Click the mask icon in the Layers palette.
Answer: CE

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NO.5 You want to apply your proof settings to an image after it is opened. What should you do?
A. Restart Photoshop.
B. Reopen the image.
C. Press CTRL (Windows) or COMMAND (Mac) +Y.
D. Press SHIFT +Y.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A clipping mask is applied to a layer. Which other layers are masked by the content of this layer?
A. The layers above it.
B. The layers below it.
C. The layers grouped with it.
D. The layers linked with it.
Answer:A

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NO.7 You want to reposition an image inside a mask without moving or resizing the layer mask. What should
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A. Click the layer thumbnail.
B. Click the Link icon between the layer and the layer mask thumbnails.
C. Press SHIFT and click the layer mask thumbnail.
D. Press OPTION (Mac) or ALT (Windows) and click the layer mask thumbnail.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You want to combine three landscape photographs into a single, wide panorama. After you
copy-and-paste the three photographs into one file. What should you do?
A. Select the three layers in the Layers palette and apply the Auto-Blend layers command.
B. Select the three layers In the Layers palette and apply the Auto-Align Layers command.
C. Select the topmost layer and apply the Align command.
D. Select the bottom layer and apply the Photomerge command.
Answer: B

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NO.1 For which of the following tasks is a page tool used? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. To resize several objects that have commonly aligned edges simultaneously, while
keeping the gaps between them fixed
B. To open a set of menu options to change the page size and orientation
C. To move the entire page's contents
D. To adjust the size of a gap between two or more objects
Answer: C and B

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NO.2 You are creating a document. You have imported a QuickTime movie into your
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enable the movie to be played in Acrobat? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Interactive Elements checkbox
B. Create PSD File Using Acrobat.
C. Acrobat 5 in the Compatibility pop-up menu.
D. PDF/X4:2008 in the Standard pop-up menu
Answer: A and C

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NO.3 Which of the following are properties of a path? Each correct answer represents a
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A. Fill
B. Empty
C. Contents
D. Closure
Answer: D, A, and C

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NO.4 Which of the following commands will you use to open discretionary hyphen?
A. Layout > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
B. Window > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
C. Object > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
D. Type > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is not included in the Graphics file formats InDesign imports?
A. Photoshop
B. Flash
C. Illustrator
D. InDesign
Answer: B

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NO.6 In which of the following formats should line art be saved for creating graphics files?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. PNG
B. EPS
C. PDF
D. EMF
Answer: B, C, and D

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NO.7 Which of the following features allows you to change the shape of an object in an
InDesign document?
A. Pathfinder panel
B. Preflight panel C.
Stroke panel
D. Swatches panel
Answer: A

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