2014年8月31日星期日

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NO.1 Rick creates a Server-Side JavaScript library, and defines a few global variables at the
beginning of the
library. The JavaScript in his XPage and in the JavaScript library modify those global
variables. The server the application runs on is heavily used, and the application settings are
set to Keep
Pages on Disk for best scalability. When the application executes, what is likely to happen?
A. The application will perform as expected.
B. The application will generate an error because you can not declare global Server-Side
JavaScript variables
C. The application will run, but the values of the globally defined variables may be lost when
the server's
JVM garbage collects variables, causing unexpected results.
D. The application will run, but every partial or full refresh will reset the values of the global
variables when it reloads the Server-Side JavaScript library.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Jo wants to make a configurable list of countries available to the client side JavaScript
of her XPage for
use in various different fields on the web page. What would be the most efficient approach?
A. Add an @DbColumn to a server side script library to look up the country list in each place
it is required
B. Perform an AJAX request to get the country list from another XPage when it is required
using
dojo.xhrGet
C. Use the Output Script control to create a global Client Side JavaScript object to reference
when the list
is required
D. Add a @Decorum to a client side script library to look up the country list in each place it is
required
Answer: C

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NO.3 Elizabeth needs to parse the contents of a web page held on a remote server into an
applicationScope variable via the server side onclick event of a button using Server Side
JavaScript. How would she do this?
A. It is not possible to perform network operations from Server Side JavaScript
B. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in a Java Script Library and call it from
the onclick
event of the button.
C. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in a Java Agent and call it from the
onclick event of
the button.
D. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in the WebContent\WEB-INF\src folder
via the
Package Explorer and call it from the onclick
event of the button.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Frank is attempting to add some functionality to an existing XPage: ?The XPage has a
Date Time
Picker edit box named "graduationDate" where users must enter their graduation date.
?Frank looks at
the HTML source of the XPage and sees that the edit box has the HTML attribute:
dojoType="ibm.xsp.widget.layout.DateTimeTextBoxContainer" ?Frank has added a combo
box where
users should choose their type of Job, from the options "Intern", "Graduate" or "Experienced".
?Frank
wants to add an onchange listener to the combo box, that checks the value of the graduation
date and
gives a browser alert popup dialog like "Intern and Graduate positions only available in the
first 2 years
after graduation". ?Frank has looked at the HTML source of the XPage and sees that the
Date Time
Picker edit box has a dojoType attribute. Which of the following code snippets should Frank
use to
retrieve the graduation date before triggering the alert dialog:
A. var graduationDate = getComponent("graduationDate").getValue();
B. var graduationDate = XSP.getElementById("#{id:graduationDate}").value;
C. var graduationDate = dojo.byId("#{id:graduationDate}").value;
D. var graduationDate = dijit.byId("#{id:graduationDate}").getValue();
Answer: D

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NO.5 Dominic wants to implement the open source CSS framework called Blueprint in his
XPages application.
He does not want to include any other CSS framework resources which may exist on the
Domino server.
What is the best way to include all of the required CSS files in the XPages in his application?
A. In each XPage in the application add the required CSS files to the Resources section
B. Create a new theme which extends webstandard and then add each Blueprint CSS file via
a resource
definition
C. Create a new theme which extends oneui and then add each Blueprint CSS file via a
resource
definition
D. Create a new theme which does not have an extension property and then add each
Blueprint CSS file
via a resource definition
Answer: D

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NO.6 John has a JavaScript function in a Client Side JavaScript library which he wrote to
parse some JSON
data and loop through the resulting objects. If he wanted to perform the same task in Server
Side
JavaScript what would be the most efficient action?
A. write a new function in Server Side JavaScript to perform the same task
B. copy the Client Side function into a Server Side JavaScript library, add the script library to
his XPage
and call the function from his Server Side
JavaScript
C. add the Client Side JavaScript library to his XPage and call the function from his server
side JavaScript
D. Server Side JavaScript does not work with JSON data
Answer: B

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NO.7 Aaron has created an XPages application that has a couple of XPages to surface the
same data to two
different application roles in two completely different user interfaces. Each role can
manipulate parts of
the data, but in both cases, the data must adhere to the same business logic and rules. What
would be
the best way for Aaron to implement the same business logic in each XPage.?
A. Create a common Client-Side JavaScript Library for the XPages to share that the user
interface can
use to execute the business logic
B. Use a series of Custom Controls to hold the business logic and share them amongst the
XPages
C. Create a common Server-Side JavaScript Library for the XPages to share that the user
interface can use to execute the business logic
D. The user interface and the business logic in an XPage can not easily be separated and
must be
maintained in each XPage
Answer: C

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NO.8 Lydia wants to create a JSON string to represent an array with three objects. Each
object has two
variables, vA and vB, set to different string values of "one", "two", "three", "four", "five", and
"six". What is
the proper syntax for the JSON string?
A. [ { vA: 'one', vB: 'two' },{ vA: 'three', vB: 'four' },{ vA: 'five', vB: 'six' } ]
B. "[ { vA: 'one', vB: 'two' },{ vA: 'three', vB: 'four' },{ vA: 'five', vB: 'six' } ]"
C. "[ { vA: one, vB: two },{ vA: three, vB: four },{ vA: five, vB: six } ]"
D. new Array(new Object({ vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }), new Object({ vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }), new
Object({
vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }));
Answer: B

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NO.1 What type of mechanism is a simple token value that is used to refer to a much bigger
large object
(LOB)?
A. locator
B. pointer
C. address
D. reference
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the primary function of an Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) workload?
A. To combine data from multiple sources.
B. To discover hidden relationships in data.
C. To analyze large amounts of data to find patterns.
D. To make changes to a small number of records within a single transaction.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What functionality allows users to perform a UNION operation between a DB2 table
and an Oracle
view?
A. Oracle connect
B. Trusted context
C. Oracle federation
D. Distributed request
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which object is a stored procedure defined into?
A. Table
B. Schema
C. Package
D. Database
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the Query Tuner?
A. To automatically capture and stop rogue queries.
B. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning a single query.
C. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning up to 100 queries.
D. To recommend indexes and to guide DBAs through the process of creating new indexes.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which action needs to be performed in order to complete the definition of an
application-period temporal
table?
A. A transaction-start-id column must be defined for the table.
B. A history table must be defined and associated with the base table.
C. A BUSINESS_TIME period must be specified in a CREATE or ALTER of the table.
D. A unique index must be created that prevents overlapping of the BUSINESS_TIME period
of the table.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two activities indicate the need for a data warehouse? (Choose two.)
A. Confirm product inventory.
B. Monitor product availability.
C. Summarize sales by region.
D. Identify patterns for products sold in the last five years.
E. Associate one or more products with a purchase order.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Which product is used to customize execution environments for the purpose of
controlling system
resources so that one department or service class does not overwhelm the system?
A. pureScale
B. Workload manager
C. Data partitioning feature
D. Self-tuning memory manager
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2180-605
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Enterprise Service Bus V7.0, Integration Development
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NO.1 The integration developer has an existing mediation flow that was developed using WebSphere
Integration Developer V6.2. The developer would like to take advantage of functionality in new mediation
primitives of WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0 to enhance the mediation flow design. What should
the integration developer do to migrate project artifacts from WebSphere Integration Developer V6.2 to
WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0? From WebSphere Integration Developer V6.2, export the
artifacts:
A. into a JAR file.Import the JAR file into the WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0, which will
automatically migrate the project.
B. as an EAR file.Import the EAR file into WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0, which will automatically
migrate the project.
C. into a Project Interchange (PI) file. Import the PI file into WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0. Then
use the migration wizard to complete the process.
D. into an Eclipse Product.Import the Eclipse file into WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0. Then use
the migration wizard to complete the process.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A new version of a common business object currently defined in a shared library is required for a new
mediation module. Which of the following should be done to ensure that older modules are not
immediately affected by the change and both versions of the business object are available to all modules?
A. Create the new version of the business object using a different name in the shared library.
B. Create the new version of the business object using the same name in the new mediation module
without modifying the shared library or the other mediation modules.
C. Create the new version of the business object using a different name in the new mediation module
without modifying the shared library or the other mediation modules.
D. Move the old version of the common business object to each existing dependent mediation module,
then create the new version of the business object in the new mediation module.
Answer: A

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NO.3 An integration developer wants to make some of the properties of the mediation primitives configurable
at runtime. Which of the following properties can be promoted to be visible to be visible within the
Administrative Console (Integrated Solutions Console)?
A. 'Root' of Event Emitter
B. 'Handler' of Message Logger
C. 'Table name' of Database Lookup
D. 'Binding Type' of Endpoint Lookup
E. 'Invocation Style' of Service Invoke
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 An integration developer has developed a new mediation flow and wants to test it on a new embedded
server profile. How should the integration developer proceed in order to perform this testing as efficiently
as possible?
A. Build the EAR file inWebSphere Integration Developer, then deploy it via serviceDeploy on the server.
B. Build the EAR file inWebSphere Integration Developer, then deploy it via the server's administrative
console.
C. In WebSphere Integration Developer, in the Servers tab, add a new server and enter the connection
details of the server.
D. InWebSphere Integration Developer, import the server via File>Import>Server and enter the
connection details of the server.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A PurchaseOrder business object and a SalesOrder business object inherit from an abstract Order
business object. Both PurchaseOrder and SalesOrder objects require an orderDate property.
However, PurchaseOrder requires an orderType property that is not required by SalesOrder. What is the
BEST way to model the objects?
A. Define theorderDate property in the abstract Order
Define the orderType property in PurchaseOrder
B. Define theorderDate property in the abstract Order
Define the orderType property in the abstract Order
C. Define theorderDate property in PurchaseOrder and SalesOrder
Define the orderType property in PurchaseOrder
D. Define theorderDate property in PurchaseOrder and SalesOrder
Define the orderType property in the abstract Order
Answer: A

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibits.
An integration developer needs to implement an application to manage the reception of resumes for a job
application. The application must allow the applicant to attach a photo in jpeg format. The integration
developer decides to create a mediation module exposed through a Web Service Export binding using
SOAP with Referenced Attachments to save the photo to a database and send the rest of the data to a
business process for further processing. Exhibit A shows the assembly diagram of the mediation module.
Exhibit B shows the interface of the Export component of the mediation module in the interface editor.
Which actions does the integration developer need to execute in the interface editor above, in order to
correctly configure the Web Service Export binding to handle SOAP with Referenced Attachments?
A. Leave the binding style to 'document literal wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to
'base64Binary'.A.Leave the binding style to 'document literal wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type
to 'base64Binary'.
B. Leave the binding style to 'document literal wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to 'hexBinary',
add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
C. Leave the binding style to 'document literal wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to 'hexBinary',
add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
D. Leave the binding style to 'document literal wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to 'hexBinary',
add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
E. Change the binding style to 'document literal non wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to
'hexBinary'.C.Change the binding style to 'document literal non wrapped', change the 'attachment' input
type to 'hexBinary'.
F. Change the binding style to 'document literal non wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to
'hexBinary', add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
G. Change the binding style to 'document literal non wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to
'hexBinary', add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
H. Change the binding style to 'document literal non wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to
'hexBinary', add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
Answer: F,G,H

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NO.7 An integration developer wants to access a database table on a DB2 database installed on an AIX
system using a JDBC Adapter. Using the configuration wizard of the JDBC Outbound Adapter import, the
integration developer is prompted for JAR files. Which kind of JAR files are required?
A. AIX specific JAR files
B. JDBC standard JAR files
C. DB2 specific JAR files
D. DB2 and AIX specific JAR files
Answer: C

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NO.8 An integration developer has been tasked to develop a mediation module that integrates a legacy J2EE
application deployed on a remote server. The legacy application is exposed through an EJB facade and
the integration developer decides to use an EJB import. What is the most suitable approach to configure it?
The integration developer should:
A. add the corresponding EJB client project to the module dependencies and select the EJB local
interface for the import.
B. import the corresponding EJB client project into the workspace and select the EJB remote interface for
the import.
C. create a WSDL interface with the same operations as the EJB interface, select it as the import interface
and add the EJB JNDI Name in the binding section.
D. use the external service wizard to point to the EJB through its IIOP URL and the wizard
automatically creates the interface and the business objects for the import.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B113
Exam Name: Selling HP Designjet Large Format Printing - Exam
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Last Update: 2014-08-31

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Exam Code: HP0-S40
Exam Name: Building HP Server Solution
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Exam Name: Delta-Technical Essentials of HP Workstations
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NO.1 What does a blinking red power button indicate on an HP Z series workstation?
A. The power supply is in an error state.
B. The computer is turned on.
C. The computer is in an error state.
D. The computer is in sleep mode.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the purpose of the Paragon alignment tool?
A. To enable older operating systems to use advanced format drives
B. To provide SAS support for Windows 7
C. To align the heads on SATA hard drives
D. To provide SATA support for Windows Vista and Linux 4
Answer: A

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NO.3 Other than size, what feature differentiates the HP Z230 tower form factor workstations from
the HP Z230 small form factor workstations?
A. Lower overall purchase price
B. 24x7x365 workload performance
C. Support for up to six displays
D. Flexible I/O interfaces
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx/ 4AA4-7343ENW.pdf(page 2)

NO.4 Which new industrial feature is included in the HP Z620 workstation chassis?
A. Convertible mini tower
B. Lift access and full-grip flip up handle
C. 4U rack mount
D. Small form factor
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which feature that applies to HP Z230 workstations ensures reliability for full time (always on)
reliability?
A. Extended life cycles
B. Extreme test and validation processes
C. 92% efficient power supply
D. Latest in processing and graphics performance
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Rational Application Developer v7
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Exam Name: Delta-Selling HP Client Virtualization Solutions
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NO.1 How many perspectives can a developer interact with at a time in each workbench
window?
A. as many as needed if the perspectives are organized as Views
B. as many as needed by selecting File > Switch Perspective
C. only one
D. one per View
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are three methods of importing a file from the file system to a Java package in the
workbench?
(Choose three.)
A. drag and drop the file from the file system to the package in the workbench
B. use the Import wizard from the File menu in the workbench
C. use the context pop-up menu on the package in the workbench and select Import
D. select Search > File in the workbench and then use the Import tab
E. use the context pop-up menu on the file in the file system and select Import to Workbench
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 A developer has deleted a file from a Java package in a workspace and would like to
recover it.
What must the developer do after selecting the Java package?
A. use the context pop-up menu option "Restore from Local History"
B. use the context pop-up menu option "Recover from File System"
C. click File > Deleted files and select the file
D. click File > Undo
Answer: A

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NO.4 What can a developer manage using Rational Application Developer?
A. a single workspace per workbench
B. multiple workspaces per workbench by switching between workspaces
C. multiple workspaces per workbench by organizing them as views
D. multiple workspaces per workbench with additional licenses
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which view best displays the list of all callers and callees of a selected method?
A. Call Hierarchy
B. Hierarchy
C. Outline
D. Package Explorer
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which application development framework is used to develop highly available, reliable,
scalable, and
secure Web and client-server applications in Java?
A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
B. Standard Widget Toolkit (SWT)
C. Java Enterprise Edition (JavaEE)
D. Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI)
Answer: C

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NO.7 A developer has made multiple changes to a Java file. How can the developer switch
back to an earlier
version of the file?
A. context pop-up menu > Compare with > Local history
B. context pop-up menu > Edit > Reset
C. context pop-up menu > Replace With > Local history
D. File > Replace with Previous
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the Software Analysis feature?
A. It provides a runtime environment to test web resources.
B. It is used to debug a wide range of applications.
C. It assists in gathering data and metrics on applications that are running.
D. It can perform automated code reviews without executing applications.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CD0-001
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NO.1 Scope creep can often occur when:
A. there is project buy-in.
B. there is a concise project plan.
C. project deliverables are poorly defined.
D. outsourcing is an option.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The is implementing a document imaging system and making the images available via the
Internet.
Which of the following issues is the most important security consideration?
A. User profiling
B. Virus protection
C. Firewall configuration
D. Disaster recover and data restoration
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a disadvantage of scanning all images at the highest resolution possible?
A. Higher expense
B. Lower quality
C. Small file size
D. Compatibility issues
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company needs to scan 5,000 three-page documents every Monday. Each document is 65
KB in size. What is the annual storage requirement?
A. 8.2 MB
B. 16.5 MB
C. 16.1 GB
D. 32.5 GB
Answer: C

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NO.5 In a Request For Proposal (RFP) for an Electronic Document Management (EDM) solution, the
customer is requiring a total cost for all goods and services. This model is known as:
A. fixed price.
B. time and materials.
C. time and materials with travel expenses.
D. mixed mode pricing.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The processes a very large number of invoices daily that are of non-standard sized and
different
thickness. Which of the following is the most important criterion for selecting a scanner for me ?
A. ADF
B. Lamps
C. High Speed
D. Despeckling
Answer: A

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NO.7 An end-user wants a user interface that is easy to personalize, will allow for new applications
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will meet these requirements?
A. A portal
B. A browser
C. A customer Windows client
D. A Java client written with JavaServer Pages (JSP)
Answer: A

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NO.8 A change control plan is concerned with all of the following EXCEPT:
A. responding to the factors that create scope change.
B. determining that a scope change has occurred.
C. documenting baseline project plan assumptions.
D. managing the actual modifications when and if any occur.
Answer: C

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2014年8月29日星期五

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Exam Code: M2020-620
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NO.1 According to the 2012 Gartner Magic Quadrant report for enterprise Governance, Risk and
Compliance (GRC) platforms, what is one of the key strengths identified for OpenPages?
A. Core system ability
B. Offering Strategy
C. Vertical / Industry Strategy
D. Geographic strategy
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.citia.co.uk/content/files/magic-quadrant-for-enterprise-governance-risk-and
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NO.2 According to independent studies, what measure has IBM used to validate to the market the
value of adopting Smarter Analytics solutions?
A. That companies increase their volumes of data.
B. That companies create bigger networks.
C. That companies out perform their competitors.
D. That companies are able to tie their performance to the average in their industry.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two of the key weighted assessment criteria used to assess the industry solution in
the Chartis 2011 RiskTech100@ study of the top technology companies active in the risk
management market?
A. Market presence and organizational strength
B. Data handling and processing speed
C. Organizational strength and data handling
D. Processing speed and market presence
Answer: A

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Reference:http://chartis-research.com/files/RiskTech100-2011-FullReport_RR1120.pdf(page 6, see
success factors)

NO.4 Which Risk Analytics solution focuses on helping companies deliver Governance, Risk and
Compliance (GRC)?
A. Algo Liquidity
B. OpenPages
C. Algo Financial Modeler
D. Algo One
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/analytics/rte/an/risk-compliance/index.html(read the
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NO.5 To help companies understand their progress on a Smarter Analytics maturity model, IBM
helps companies access their Analytics Quotient (AQ).
What is one aspect of a client's business that is scored to measure a company's AQ maturity?
A. The level of Risk they Measure in their business
B. The volume of data they process
C. The number of nodes used to process data
D. The ability to anticipate future events and results
Answer: A

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NO.6 According to the IBM Financial Markets Framework, name a key area of financial enterprise
that IBM can now provide a solution for, with its acquisition of the Algorithmics solution set?
A. Algorithmic Trading
B. Operational Risk and Compliance
C. Next Generation Trading Infrastructure
D. CVA and Hedging Optimization
Answer: A

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Reference:http://public.dhe.ibm.com/common/ssi/ecm/en/fab03002usen/FAB03002USEN.PDF(pa
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NO.7 Which one of the following risk types can the Algorithmics Risk Analytics solution set help
measure, manage and mitigate?
A. Liquidity Risk
B. Information Security Risk
C. Operational Risk
D. Systems Risk
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/analytics/algorithmics/(first para)

NO.8 In IBM Risk Analytics, IBM studies show that setting aside additional capital made no impact
on businesses in a crisis.
What is it that has been proved to improve business survival in the same crisis scenario?
A. Additional data to work with
B. External consulting support
C. Increased market confident through evidentially better business management
D. A more dynamic acquisition strategy
Answer: C

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NO.1 An IBM Endpoint Manager administrator who is responsible for managing iOS mobile devices
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A. Mobile Device dashboard
B. iOS Device View dashboard
C. Single Device View dashboard
D. Enterprise Apps Management dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where would a device obtain an APK file during application installation once it has been
imported to the IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices? (Choose two.)
A. relay
B. App Store
C. Google Play
D. corporate intranet site
E. IBM Endpoint Manager server
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 An Android device cannot be enrolled with a message similar to: Received an invalid server
URL. What should be checked by the IBM Endpoint Manager administrator to identity the problem?
A. confirm the Trusted Service Provider is up and running
B. make sure the provided server name points to the enrollment server
C. make sure the provided URL points to the Trusted Service Provider URL
D. check if the maximum number of device has been reached for the enrollment server
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which mobile devices can only be managed using the Management Extender for Microsoft
Exchange?
A. AppleiOS4.xdevices
B. BlackBerry OS 10 devices
C. SAEE enabled Android devices
D. Microsoft Windows Mobile 5.x devices
Answer: B

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NO.5 What must occur in order to remove an iOS profile from a managed device?
A. The profile must not be encrypted.
B. The profile must contain an administrator password.
C. The profile must have been encrypted at the time of deployment.
D. The profile must have been deployed using IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices.
Answer: D

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NO.6 When creating a Samsung SAFE Capability Profile what are two of the system security'
restrictions that can be set for SAFE compatible mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. disable Bluetooth
B. disable the microphone
C. enable encryption of internal storage
D. enable encryption of external storage
E. define the required maximum password length
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 An employee's corporate mobile device managed by IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) was stolen.
The device is accessing corporate data both using e-mail and VPN profiles. Which action can be
initiated by the EM console operator to protect access to corporate data?
A. run the action of task Device Wipe against the stolen device
B. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Corporate Device against the stolen device
C. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Android Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
D. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Apple iOS Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the recommended maximum number of iOS devices that should report to an iOS
management extender?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 5000
D. 10000
Answer: C

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NO.1 An administrator wants to share a fibre attached TS3100 tape library between multiple IBM i7.1
partitions. The system contains a PC #5774 - 4Gb fibre adapter and uses an IBM fibre switch. All
IBM i partitions are hosted by VIO Server (VIOS).
How could the administrator configure the sharing of the tape library?
A. Configure NPIV within VIOS, then configure each partition to use NPIV to share the tape library.
B. Create a script that can be called after each backup job in a partition finishes, which will move
the fibre adapter to the next partition
C. In the HMC, select the host Power System, then select Operations - Schedule Operations -
New. Create a new Scheduled Dynamic Reconfiguration operation to move the fibre adapter
between partitions.
D. In the HMC, select the VIOS partition, then select Operations - Schedule Operations - Options -
New. Create a new Scheduled Dynamic Reconfiguration operation to move the fibre adapter
between partitions.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Disk from a fibre-attached V7000 disk subsystem will be used for an IBM i partition. What type
of adapter is required in the IBM i partition?
A. SAS disk adapter
B. Virtual SAS adapter
C. Virtual SCSI adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Answer: C

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NO.3 A client IBM i 7.1 partition is being hosted by dual VIO Server partitions (VIOS-1 & VIOS-2). A
Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) has been created in order to provide Ethernet failover capability
for the IBM i partition. The IBM i partition will use the Ethernet resources of the VIO Server
partitions.
How many virtual Ethernet adapters need to be defined on the HMCI in the IBM i client, and VIO
Server partition profiles to support SEA and failover?
A. IBM i Client: 1 adapter:
VIOS-1: 1 adapter
VIOS-2: 1 adapter
B. IBM i Client: 2 adapters
VIOS-1: 1 adapter
VIOS-2: 1 adapter
C. IBM i Client: 1 adapter
VIOS-1: 2 adapters
VIOS-2: 2 adapters
D. IBM i Client: 2 adapters
VIOS-1: 2 adapters
VIOS-2: 2 adapters
Answer: C

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NO.4 In addition to Qshell and PASE, what other product needs to be installed on an IBM i partition
in order to remotely run scripts on an HMC?
A. IBM Portable Utilities for i
B. IBM i Integrated Server Support
C. IBM Cryptographic Service Provider
D. IBM Network Authentication Enablement for i
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has purchased a new BladeCenter H (BCH) and POWER blade to run IBM i. The
POWER blade is configured with two Fibre Channel interlaces for attaching SAN and tape.
They have an IBM TS3500 tape library with a fibre channel connection, and current firmware is
running through a fibre switch to another IBM i system. One port on the existing switch and one
port in the BCH fibre switch has been zoned to provide a connection from the tape library to the
BCH.
After IBM i 7.1 SLIC and base OS are installed on the blade from IBM distribution media, the tape
library does not appear in the device configuration.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The existing switch does not support NPIV.
B. NPIV enablement was omitted when configuring the BCH switch.
C. The BCH switch configuration must match the link speed of the TS3500.
D. A switch-to-switch cable is required. A switch to device cable was shipped with the BCH by default.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer needs two client IBM i partitions on a 4-core Power 720, with storage hosted by
VIO Server. What is the least expensive method to manage this environment?
A. HMC
B. Virtual Partition Manager
C. Integrated Virtualization Manager
D. Systems Director Navigator for PowerVM
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer has multiple POWERS 570 servers. The servers are controlled by multiple HMCs.
The customer is installing an additional Power 770 server in this environment but will retain their
existing HMCs. No updates to FSP or HMC levels have been made since installation of the
POWERS servers.
After reviewing the cover letters for ESP and HMC firmware levels, what updates are required to
support the addition of the new server into the network?
A. Update only the HMCs to the latest version.
B. Update only the FSPs to the latest release available.
C. Update the FSP5 and HMC5 of the existing systems to the minimum level required.
D. Update the POWERS ESPs to the most recent version available for the installed firmware
release. Update the HMCs to the most recent release available.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer wants two VIO Servers in the CEO of a proposed Power 720. To provide redundancy
for the IBM V7000 SAN they will utilize to provision disk for his client partitions.
What is the minimum required to make this possible?
A. A 6-disk storage backplane
B. An 8-disk storage backplane
C. A 6-disk storage backplane and the split drive bay feature
D. An 8-disk storage backplane and the split drive bay feature
Answer: C

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NO.1 A BPM analyst is creating a process model for requesting a renovation permit. The BPM
analyst is using the following description of the first activity:
"One of our municipal office clerks receives a paper permit application from the local resident, an
applicant. The clerk first looks up the resident's name and address in our system, then enters the
information from the paper application into the system, and assigns a temporary permit number to
the application. When the application entry is complete, the clerk sends it to a manager to assign it
to an adjudicator."
Which name should the BPM analyst use for the first task that accurately describes the activity and
follows recommended naming conventions?
A. Application Entry
B. Create Application
C. Clerk Receive and Enter Application
D. Lookup name, create application, assign number, and send it to the manager
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. What is the first thing the BPM analyst should do while constructing a discovery map? Identify
the:
A. Value-Add activities.
B. sub processes within the hiring process.
C. start and end points of the hiring process.
D. activity where the maximum problems lie.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A BPM analyst is designing a process in the Process Diagram View, and realizes the process
must account for a technical exception following an activity. What symbol in the BlueWorks Live
needs to be used for this technical exception?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.4 A BPM analyst has modeled the following process. However, after the "Extract Data" and
"Send data use case template to client", the client has stated that "Complete data scenarios" should
be done.
How should the BPM analyst adjust the process?
A. Join A and B
B. Insert join before A, and move B after A
C. Insert Join before B, and move A after B
D. Move B before A, and insert a join after A
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the discovery session, the business subject matter experts (SMEs) indicate to the BPM
analyst that the hiring request is reviewed by both the human resource admin and the human
resource manager. How should the BPM analyst document the participant role for this activity?
A. Assign the admin as the participant since the admin is paid less.
B. Assign the manager as the participant since the admin reports to the manager.
C. Break the "Review" task into separate tasks and define who does what.
D. Pick either the admin or the manager and assign the "Review" task to that role.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A BPM analyst needs to make a change to the connections in the following process diagram.
The order of activities needs to be changed so that "Grind Beans" is followed by "Brew Coffee".
"Heat Milk" will come last after "Brew Coffee".
How should the BPM analyst make this change to the connection?
A. Click on the "Brew Coffee" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Grind Beans" and
"Heat Milk"
B. Click on the "Grind Beans" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Heat Milk" and
"Brew Coffee"
C. Click on the connection between "Heat Milk" and "Brew Coffee" and drag the connection arrow
to "Grind Beans"
D. Click on the connection between "Grind Beans" and "Heat Milk" and drag the connection arrow
to "Brew Coffee".
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the process discovery session, the team identifies that the process steps to review the
"hiring" request is the same as the process steps to review a "promotion/pay rise" request. What
should the BPM analyst use to map the activities needed for the review of the "hiring" request in
Blueworks Live?
A. a sub-process
B. a different color
C. a linked process
D. a separate milestone
Answer: C

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NO.8 During the Process Discovery phase, the BPM analyst needs to identify who must fully
participate in the Process Improvement and Discovery Workshops (PIDW). Of the many roles in a
BPM project, which roles must fully participate?
A. Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
B. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, BPM Developer
C. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, Project Manager
D. Project Manager, Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
Answer: A

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NO.1 A customer has recently decommissioned their DS8700 wants to use the same data center
floor
space for a new D38 870.
What is an important fact for the technical specialist to discuss with the customer as it relates to
data center requirements?
A. The DS8870 uses more power than the DS8700 so more power cords will need to be ordered.
B. The DS8870 uses a different power connector than the D68700 so new cords will need to be
supplied.
C. Air circulation in the DS8870 has changed and flows back to front so cooling vent locations will
need to be adjusted.
D. The rack dimensions on the DS8870 are larger than the D38700 so more floor space will be
needed.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has an existing D68800 which is installed in their data center. It now must have an
extra frame added to support additional capacity growth, but there is no room to fit the expansion
frame to the right.
Which option should be taken?
A. Fit the expansion frame to the left of the base frame
B. Configure the expansion frame with the DS8000 Passthrough feature to allow placement of the
frame anywhere
C. Disruptively relocate the D68800 to make space to the right of the base frame for the expansion
frame
D. Create an MES to replace all of the existing capacity with larger drives which support both the
existing workload and the planned increase
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer’s IT department has had problems meeting their backup window. They now
mandate
that a fast backup process be in place before an application is deployed. They have a DS8000 as
their disk subsystem and a TS3500 tape library for backups.
What is the simplest and most effective option to satis1i this requirement?
A. Implement TS1 140 drives
B. ImplementFlashCopy
C. Install Solid state Drives
D. Increase cache size
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following items would suggest that the use of space efficient FlashCopy for the
Global Mirror secondary volume could present an issue?
A. The customer is using Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication to manage Global
Mirror
B. The workload has a large amount of heavy sequential write activity
C. There is a long distance between the primary and secondary sites
D. There are multiple primary disk subsystems in the Global Mirror session
Answer: B

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NO.5 A new D58000 mixed mainframe and open storage customer would like to connect older open
(2
Gbps) and mainframe servers (4 Gbps) to the DS8000 system’s 8 Gbps host adapters.
How can this be done?
A. through the GUI, adjust the required FOP ports for open to 2 Gbps and the FIOON ports for
mainframe to 4 Gbps link speed
B. the DS8OIJO supports 4 Gbps for mainframe connection; the 2 Gbps open systems connection
must be connected via an intermediate SAN
C. the customer needs to change the server’s HBA5 to an 8 Gbps link speed type
D. the D58000 8 Gbps Host Adapter ports auto-negotiate to 4 Gbps and 2 Gbps link speed
Answer: D

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NO.6 On the DS8870, which of the following drive options is a valid Easy Tier hybrid pool?
A. SLO and eMLO SSDs
B. eMLO SSDs and 5,400 RPM drives
C. 7,200 RPM drives
D. 15,000 RPM and 7,200 RPM drives
Answer: D

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NO.7 When configuring LUNs for IBM i which is not using VIOS, which of the following is true?
A. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
B. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
C. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
D. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The output of what tool is used as input to Disk Magic to most accurately model a Windows
host
that will be used with an IBM D38000?
A. Jetstress
B. Perimon
C. IOSTAT
D. NMON
Answer: B

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