2013年12月1日星期日

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A16
Exam Name: Citrix (Architecting a Citrix Virtualization Solution)
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Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 How should an architect recommend delivery applications to the Manufacturing users at Healthy
Helping Hands?
A.Publish the applications to new PCs.
B.Publish the applications to their existing devices.
C.Use XenDesktop to deliver disk-based thin clients.
D.Publish the applications to new diskless thin clients
Answer: D

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NO.2 Scenario: As Healthy Helping Hands continues to expand, the demand placed on the current solution
will increase significantly. As such, an architect must access the current hardware to indentify constraints
against the company
future growth. Which statement best describes a current
hardware constraint?
A.Hard drive capacity cannot be expanded due to space limitations.
B.Existing server compressors are not capable of supporting 64-bit architecture.
C.The existing 1Gbps server NIC speed is insufficient for home user connectivity.
D.Server memory is at or above the maximum supported by the current hardware and operating system.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking at a project to expand and upgrade
their Citrix environment to meet their current and future business needs. The main business
requirement for this project is to provide secure and reliable access to company-owned applications for all
the current and future staff, including contractors around the world. Which two issues present a risk to the
project and its deadlines based on the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A.Print jobs intermittently fail
B.A dispersed user community
C.Wide range of device types in use
D.Unpredictable timing and size of acquisitions
E.External access only through an intermittently failing Secure Gateway
Answer: EB

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NO.4 Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking into making New York and San
Francisco their two principal sites, each capable of failing over to the other. This will be one of the major
requirements for the Citrix infrastructure design. Which two backend infrastructure components need
improvements in disaster recovery support as part of this project? (Choose two)
A.HP SAN storage
B.User Profile server
C.PositivelyPeople database
D.Terminal Services license server
Answer: CA

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NO.5 Which three sections should an architect incorporate into the Project Initiation Document (PID) to
ensure that the project meets the business and technical requirements of Healthy Helping Hands?
(Choose three.)
A.Risk Log
B.Stage Plan
C.Project Scope
D.Detailed Design
E.Resource Requirements
Answer: BCE

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A22
Exam Name: Citrix (Citrix XenApp 6.5 Advanced Administration )
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 A XenApp Administrator plans to use Citrix NetScaler to load balance Web Interface servers.
Which persistence setting should the administrator choose to correctly configure high availability
for Web Interface?
A.NOCE
B.DESTIP
C.SOURCEIP
D.COOKIEINSERT
Answer: D

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NO.2 After repairing a XenApp Web site, an administrator notices that the customized footer text is missing.
Which file must the administrator restore from backup?
A.Default.ica
B.Web.config
C.Repair.SFO
D.WebInterface.conf
E.LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Answer: D

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NO.3 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator of a 100-server farm needs to apply Citrix and vendor hotfixes
on a monthly basis, and a server restart is always required. The administrator needs to automate
this process but does NOT have a third party tool available.
Which two tasks should the administrator complete to guarantee that updates will be applied
successfully? (Choose two.)
A.Prohibit logons and notify users.
B.Restart the server and install hotfixes.
C.Apply application load evaluators and notify users.
D.Log off all users from servers and schedule a .EXE setup file installation.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Scenario: An administrator has configured a XenApp Web site and customized the footer text of
the site to reflect the required customer-specific hyperlinks. The administrator now plans to back
up the site.
Which file must the administrator back up?
A.Default.ica
B.Web.config
C.Repair.SFO
D.WebInterface.conf
E.LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Answer: D

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NO.5 Scenario: An administrator in a XenApp farm is in the process of replacing a couple of the failed
XenApp servers in the farm. The administrator has been instructed to execute the DSCHECK
command once the servers have been replaced.
What will be the outcome of executing the DSCHECK command?
A.Recover the local data store
B.Purge corrupt local host cache entries
C.Purge the data store of incorrect entries
D.Display information about servers in the farm
Answer: C

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NO.6 In order for the Web Interface server to correctly work with the Access Gateway Enterprise Edition
configuration in the attached exhibit,
the administrator must configure the authentication point at __________. (Choose the correct
option to complete the sentence.)
Case Study Title (Case Study):
A.LDAP
B.RADIUS
C.the Web Interface
D.the Access Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.7 When should an administrator use the DSCHECK command line utility?
A.To fix errors on server entries in the data store
B.To fix errors related to configuring Proxy Authentication
C.To fix errors in the local host cache on each XenApp 6.5 server
D.To generate a report of logon/logoff activity for a XenApp 6.5 server
Answer: A

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NO.8 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft
SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Adding an additional zone to the farm
B.Replicating the data store to a second database server
C.Moving the data store from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two methods can an administrator use to configure Web Interface in high availability mode?
(Choose two.)
A.Windows Cluster services
B.NetScaler Load Balancing feature
C.Windows Load Balancing services
D.NetScaler Access Gateway feature
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft
SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Adding an additional zone to the farm
B.Mirroring the SQL database to a second SQL server
C.Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: B

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NO.11 Scenario: An administrator migrated the data store of a Citrix XenApp 6.5 server farm from
Microsoft SQL Server Express on XenApp server XAS01 to a separate Microsoft SQL Server 2008
cluster.
The administrator tested the move, noted that the cluster is running well and found no errors.
None of the XenApp 6.5 servers can connect to the new location of the data store.
In this scenario, when should the administrator use the DSCHECK command?
A.After restarting the data collector
B.After using the DSMAINT command
C.After running the QFARM command
D.After using the CHANGE CLIENT command
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator needs to validate the data store in a XenApp farm.
The administrator should use the DSCHECK command with the /CLEAN parameter after _______.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.restoring the data store
B.backing up the data store
C.restarting the XenApp server
D.restarting the IMA Service on the data collector
Answer: B

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NO.13 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which new requirement would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from
Microsoft SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Implementing database mirroring
B.Adding an additional zone to the farm
C.Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: A

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NO.14 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in a small environment plans to use Access Gateway to secure
ICA connections from an external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ in ICA proxy mode.
The environment requires minimum configuration to secure connections from the Web Interface
server to the XML broker server.
Where should the administrator place the Web Interface server and XML broker?
A.On one server and place the server in the DMZ
B.On separate servers and place the servers in the DMZ
C.On one server and place the server in the internal network
D.On separate servers and place the servers in the internal network
Answer: C

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NO.15 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in an enterprise environment plans to use Access Gateway to
secure ICA connections from the external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ using ICA
proxy mode.
Which two locations for these components would be the most secure? (Choose two.)
A.Place the XML broker in the DMZ.
B.Place the Web Interface in the DMZ.
C.Place the XML broker in the internal network.
D.Place the Web Interface in the internal network.
Answer: CD

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NO.1 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the
traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities,
including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule
A. internal_clear>All-GwToGw
B. Communities>Communities
C. Internal_clear>External_Clear
D. Internal_clear>Communities
E. Internal_clear>All_communities
Answer: E

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NO.2 You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55
Gateway to SecurePlatform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate.
Which package is needed in the repository before upgrading?
A. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro
B. VNP-1 and FireWall-1
C. SecurePlatform NGX R60
D. SVN Founation
E. VPN-1 Pro/Express NGX R60
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Check Point QoS feature is used to dynamically allocate relative portions of
available bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Differentiated Services
C. Limits
D. Weighted Fair Queuing
E. Low Latency Queing
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have a production implementation of Management High Availability, at
Version VPN-1 NG with application Intelligence R55.
You must upgrade two SmartCenter Servers to VPN-1.
What is the correct procedure?
A. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers
2. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects version to VPN-1 NGX
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
B. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers
2. Perform an advanced upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects to version VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again
C. 1. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
2. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN.1 NGX.
3. Synchronize the primary with the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
5. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
6. Synchronize the Servers again.
D. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
4. Synchronize the two servers again.
5. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
6. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
7. Synchronize the Servers again.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Exhibit:
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster,
you plan to use three machines with the configurations displayed in the exhibit.
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
B. No, QuadCards are not supported with ClusterXL.
C. No, all machines in a cluster must be running on the same OS.
D. No, al cluster must have an even number of machines.
E. No, ClusterXL is not supported on Red Hat Linux.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You work a network administrator for KillTest .com. You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with
two rules: an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default
Rule with a weight of 10. The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384
Kbps, and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for
four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action
properties. If traffic passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of
the following is true?
A. Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.
B. The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.
C. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the H.323 rule.
D. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule
E. Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are preparing to configure your VoIP Domain Gatekeeper object. Which two other object should you
have created first?
A. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the proxy is installed.
B. An object to represent the PSTN phone network, AND an object to represent the IP
phone network
C. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the gatekeeper is installed.
D. An object to represent the Q.931 service origination host, AND an object to represent
the H.245 termination host
E. An object to represent the call manager, AND an object to represent the host on which
the transmission router is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You receive an alert indicating a suspicious FTP connection is trying to connect to
one of your internal hosts. How do you block the connection in real time and verify
the connection is successfully blocked?
A. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Active mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the active mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection does not reappear.
B. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Log mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the Log mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection does not reappear.
C. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Active mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the active mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection is dropped.
D. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Log mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the Log mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection is dropped.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Exhibit:
KillTest is using a mesh VPN Community to create a site-to-site VPN. The VPN
properties in this mesh Community is displayed in the exhibit.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. If Jack changes the settings, "Perform key exchange encryption with" from "3DES" to
"DES", she will enhance the VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
B. Mrs Bill must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with
AES.
C. If KillTest changes the setting "Perform IPSec data encryption with" from
"AES-128" to "3DES", Jack will increase the encryption overhead.
D. Her VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the
longest key VPN-1 NGX supports.
Answer: C

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NO.10 KillTest .com has many VPN-1 Edge gateways at various branch offices, to allow
VPN-1 SecureClient users to access KillTest .com resources. For security reasons,
KillTest .com's Secure policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the
VPN-1 Edge gateways first be inspected by your headquarters' VPN-1 Pro Security
Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?
A. To the Internet an other targets only
B. To the center and other satellites, through the center
C. To the center only
D. To the center, or through the center to other satellites, then to the Internet and other
VPN targets
Answer: D

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NO.11 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323
protocols, passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP
Domain Gatekeeper do you select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A

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NO.12 Where can a Security Administator adjust the unit of measurement (bps, Kbps or
Bps), for Check Point QoS bandwidth?
A. Global Properties
B. QoS Class objects
C. Check Point gateway object properties
D. $CPDIR/conf/qos_props.pf
E. Advanced Action options in each QoS rule.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315   156-315

NO.13 Exhibit:
The exhibit displays the cphaprob state command output from a New Mode High
Availability cluster member.
Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2, since its number is 2.
B. 192.168.1.1, because its number is 1.
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority.
D. 192.168.1.2, because its stats is active
Answer: B

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NO.14 KillTest is concerned that a denial-of-service (DoS) attack may affect her VPN
Communities. She decides to implement IKE DoS protection. Jack needs to
minimize the performance impact of implementing this new protectdion.
Which of the following configurations is MOST appropriate for Mrs. Bill?
A. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Puzzles", and Support IKE
DoS protection from unidentified source to "Stateless"
B. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source, and Support IKE DoS
protection from unidentified soruce to "Puzzles"
C. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support
IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "Puzzles".
D. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source, and "Support IKE DoS
protection" from unidentified source to "Stateless".
E. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support
IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "None".
Answer: D

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NO.15 Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys.
Which of the following options will end the intruder's access, after the next Phase 2
exchange occurs?
A. Phase 3 Key Revocation
B. Perfect Forward Secrecy
C. MD5 Hash Completion
D. SH1 Hash Completion
E. DES Key Reset
Answer: B

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NO.16 KillTest is the Security Administrator for KillTest .com. KillTest .com FTP
servers have old hardware and software. Certain FTP commands cause the FTP
servers to malfunction. Upgrading the FTP Servers is not an option this time.
Which of the following options will allow KillTest to control which FTP
commands pass through the Security Gateway protecting the FTP servers?
A. Global Properties->Security Server ->Security Server->Allowed FTP Commands
B. SmartDefense->Application Intelligence->FTP Security Server
C. Rule Base->Action Field->Properties
D. Web Intelligence->Application Layer->FTP Settings
E. FTP Service Object->Advanced->Blocked FTP Commands
Answer: B

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NO.17 In a distributed VPN-1 Pro NGX environment, where is the Internal Certificate
Authority (ICA) installed?
A. On the Security Gateway
B. Certificate Manager Server
C. On the Policy Server
D. On the Smart View Monitor
E. On the primary SmartCenter Server
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-315   156-315

NO.18 Exhibit:
KillTest tries to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the
Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. KillTest sees
the screen displayed in the exhibit.
What is the problem?
A. Jack must enable directional_match(true) in the object_5_0.c file on SmartCenter server.
B. Jack must enable Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. Jack must enable VPN Directional Match on the VPN Advanced screen, in Global properties.
D. Jack must enable a dynamic-routing protocol, such as OSPF, on the Gateways.
E. Jack must enable VPN Directional Match on the gateway object's VPN tab.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which operating system is NOT supported by VPN-1 SecureClient?
A. IPSO 3.9
B. Windows XP SP2
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. RedHat Linux 8.0
E. MacOS X
Answer: A

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NO.20 You set up a mesh VPN community, so your internal networks can access your
partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and
HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and
partner networks is sent in clear text. How do you configure the VPN community?
A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http,
with the Community object in the VPN field.
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP
services to the Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field.
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the
Community object in the VPN field.
D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule
in the Security Policy to allow Any as the service with the Community object in the VPN
field.
Answer: B

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NO.1 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

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NO.2 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

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NO.4 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

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NO.5 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

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NO.10 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

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NO.13 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.19 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

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NO.20 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 What is the name of the Service that can he used for transfer ting the recovery file to the network share
instead of the logged on user.?
A. Pointsec Service Start
B. Pointsec Transer Service
C. Pointsec Recovery Service
D. None of the Above
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the options to harvest log for 3rd party tools
A. Use GET command with FTP Server script
B. Export logs from Pre Boot Environment
C. Use pslogexp.exe to export logs
D. Simply point your 3rd party tool to the Pointsec recovery path
Answer: C

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NO.3 You cm also use preclieck.txt to configure settings for?
A. Third-party Graphical Identification and Authentication (GINA) dlls
B. Single Sign On (SSO) delay times
C. Profile update intervals
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 When logged into wehRH, what is the only task that a help-desk user can perform?
A. Create a rec file
B. Create updates
C. Force uninstall
D. Provide Remote Help
Answer: D

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NO.5 How would you uninstall Pointsec from a machine that has not written a recovery file {.rec} and has yet
to he encrypted?
A. Use "reco_img.exe" and perform forced removal
B. Create recovery disk using another rec file
C. Add/remove programs
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following strategies, if used individually, is viewed to he the most secure method to protect
data?
A. File encryption
B. Boot protection
C. Encryption
D. Boot protection and encryption
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are 3 processes which Device Protector exempts by Default
A. .BAT.CMD.MP3 :
B. .EXE .VBS .BAT
C. JPG .DOC .XML
D. .GIF.DLL.CPL
E. .EXE .COM .SYS
Answer: E

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NO.8 If a client machine in need of a profile update has no path for update profiles set in the Pointsec
Management Console. Is it possible to still update this client?
A. Yes, by placing the profile in the search path for its recovery files.
B. No, it is not possible to update this client
C. Yes by placing the profile in the system root directory
D. Yes, by placing the profile in %PROGRAM FILES%\Pointsec\Pointsec for PC /work.
Answer: D

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NO.9 How do Offline Profiles work?
A. By applying a profile to a user when a connection to the Device Protector server cannot be made
B. By forcing users to go offline in the event of a security breach O
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.10 How cm Device Protector stop my new programs from being installed and old programs from being
uninstalled?
A. By setting Removable Media Manager to prevent any application uninstallations / installations.
B. By selecting .EXE and .MSI in Trusted File Types in Program Security Guard
C. By setting Device Manager to Deny All
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.11 Is Active Directory / Eilirectory required for Device Protector to work?
A. No, as Device Protector can work within Linux
B. No, only a copy of Windows XP Home
C. Yes, Device Protector cannot be installed without an Active Directory / Edirectory being present
D. No, but you will only be able to apply profiles to the local machine
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of these methods cannot he used to uninstall a Pointsec for PC encrypted system?
A. Add/Remove Programs
B. Use .rec to decrypt in recovery mode
C. Manual removal of files
D. An un-install profile
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is not a directory path designated in the profile?
A. Recovery path
B. Update path
C. Software update
D. Installation
Answer: C

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NO.14 A one time login and remote password change response can he used multiple times to allow access to
the machine
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following components is not installed as part of a Pointsec for PC installation?
A. Pre boot authentication
B. Secure user database
C. Monitoring tool
D. File encryption
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-515-65
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Plus)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr.
Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a
record of all
internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security
Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.3 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a
problem with an NGX
product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check
Point's
troubleshooting guidelines?
F. B, C, A, E, D
G. A, E, B, D, C
H. A, B, C, D, E
I. B, A, D, E, C
J. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

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NO.4 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied.
Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what
information
will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.7 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared
secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before
allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic
load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to
view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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NO.9 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer
becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored
in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

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NO.10 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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2013年11月30日星期六

IBM certification LOT-989 best exam questions and answers

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Exam Code: LOT-989
Exam Name: IBM (Building Portlets with IBM WebSphere Portlet Factory 6.1.5)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The primary use for the WebSphere Portlet Factory server configuration is?
A. To deliver your application to a production server.
B. To run and test your application on a development server.
C. To create a WAR file for manual deployment to a production or development server.
D. To give your application access to APIsthat are specific to the target server.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Valerie is starting development of her first portlet using WebSphere Portlet Factory. After opening
Eclipse, which perspective should she select?
A. WebSphere Portal
B. Portlet Development
C. Database Development
D. WebSphere Portlet Factory
Answer: D

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NO.3 Jalen has both Rational Application Developer and IBM Rational Software Architect and Eclipse
available to her as IDEs for working with WebSphere Portlet Factory. Which of the following is a difference
that will help her decide which IDE to select?
A. Eclipse provides more efficient class loading.
B. The Rational software IDE is more tightly integated with WebSphere Portal, providing a more seamless
development-staging-testing environment.
C. The Eclipse IDE gives her greater access to test environments, reducing the time required to perform
iterative development and testing.
D. WebSphere Portlet Factory runs equally well in both, so she should base her decision on the
environment with which she is most comfortable and her team supports.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Heather is preparing to move an application into production, and has discovered that there is an option
to create a portlet WAR file or an application WAR file. What is the conceptual difference between the
two?
A. An application WAR is a prerequisite for deploying aportlet WAR; it represents the container hierarchy
for portlets.
B. An application WAR can deploy multipleportlets at the same time in an application, while a portlet WAR
represents a single instance of a portlet.
C. An application WAR can include profiling for personalization and configuration, while aportlet WAR is
static and cannot be configured with profiling.
D. Aportlet WAR represents a portlet designed to run on a portal server, while an application WAR is a
stand-alone application that has no dependencies on portal containers so it can be deployed to an
application server.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Tom has added several new portlet models to his existing project, and would now like to add them to a
page on his development portal server. How does Tom get his new portlets to the server so that he can
add them to a page?
A. Use the "Publish Application" project level menu.
B. Use the "Run As/Run on Server" project level menu.
C. Use the file system copy command to move them to the deployed application.
D. Export the project as a "WebSphere Portlet Factory Zip Archive" and import it into the portal.
Answer: A

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