2013年11月30日星期六

Latest training guide for IBM 000-M87

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Exam Code: 000-M87
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Netezza Technical Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is TRUE about the GROOM TABLE command.?
A. You must first run the nzstop command as the nz user from the host command line.
B. GROOM can materialize the results of previous ALTER TABLE ADD/DROP column
commands.
C. The table being groomed will be locked exclusively during the groom operation.
D. GROOM is an administrative command that must be run by a DBA.
Answer: B

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NO.2 With workload management, an Administrator can set aside _________ S-Blades to be used
exclusively with a given database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. all
D. 0
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about Netezza privileges is NOT true?
A. Privileges are additiveou cannot remove a privilege from a user who has been granted that privilege as
a member of a group.
B. Object owners automatically have full access to their objects.
C. Users with privileges on an object can pass that object to others by default.
D. By default, newly created objects have no privileges associated with them.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-645
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What kind of authoring style uses the filter function?
A. Relational
B. Conformed
C. Dimensional
D. DMR
Answer: C

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NO.2 In a crosstab, Campaign is in the rows area, Order method type is in the columns area, and Quantity is
the measure. Campaign and Order method type are specified in the query. The report runs, displaying
quantity values for all years. Why does this happen?
A. The dimension member from that dimension is implied.
B. The order method member from that dimension is implied.
C. The aggregate member from that dimension is implied.
D. The default member from that dimension is implied.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When would a report author define a set.?
A. To create a slicer to focus on a specific number of years of data in a report.
B. To change the crosstab node member properties for a level.
C. To use as a summary function to return the total of the specified members.
D. To return members from different hierarchies of the same dimension.
Answer: A

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NO.4 To create a report from the data source shown, what entities will the report author use?
A. Members
B. Values
C. Attributes
D. MUNs
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which term below best describes the selected cell in the crosstab?
A. Level
B. member
C. Tuple
D. Revenue
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-181
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules BRMS v7.1, Application Development)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

000-181 (IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules BRMS v7.1, Application Development) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-181.html

NO.1 A developer is implementing a new Business Rule Management System. The requirements say that the
rules should be valid for specific periods of time and no additional rule properties are required.
At a minimum, the developer should use:
A. the default extension model.
B. the plug-in extension model.
C. a specific extension data file.
D. a new extension model and new extension data file.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The development team of a company needs to deploy their business rules in a testing environment and
a production environment. Rules with status "Defined" should be deployed to the testing environment,
while rules with status "Verified" should be deployed to the production environment.
What should the developer do to satisfy this requirement?
A. Create one project with one ruleset extractor based on a dynamic query, which takes rule status as a
parameter in the Ruleset Export wizard.
B. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two queries.
C. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two validator classes.
D. Create two rule projects, one for rules with status "Defined" and the other for rules with status
"Verified".
Answer: B

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NO.3 A developer must set up a rule project. The developer has received three Java archive (.jar) files. The
first .jar file contains information related to the input parameter. The second .jar file contains information
related to the output parameter. The third .jar file contains utility methods that are not used by the rules or
by the other two .jar files. To create the BOM in the rule project, the developer should add:
A. two .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
B. two .jar files to the XOM and create two BOM entries.
C. all three .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
D. all three .jar files to the XOM and create three BOM entries.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The validation team is complaining because the WSDL generated by the Transparent Decision Service
is incomplete and does not allow for execution. When verifying the application, the developer realizes that
the schemas are not available. What should the developer do to resolve the problem?
A. Add the schemas in the BOM Editor.
B. Reference the schemas in the ruleapp project.
C. Package the schemas in the META-INF classes of the application.
D. Select the schemas in the dynamic execution object model property.
Answer: D

IBM   000-181   000-181

NO.5 A company has a non-static BOM method void addLine(OrderLine line, String comment)in class Order.
Rule writers should be presented with the action phrase "add an item to an order with comment a string".
How should a developer verbalize this method.?
A. add <0, an item> to <this> with comment <1, a string>
B. add <line, "an item"> to <this> with comment <comment>
C. add {0, "an item"} to {this} with comment {1}
D. add {line, "an item"} to {this} with comment {comment}
Answer: C

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2013年11月29日星期五

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Exam Code: 3305
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Experience Portal with POM Implementation and Maintenance exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 The Alarm Manager page on Experience Portal Manager shows an Alarm:
Q_ICR62006: User-to-User header is missing from SIP response 183 Session Which Avaya product in
the deployment is not configured correctly?
A. Avaya Aura Communication Manager
B. Avaya Aura Session Manager
C. Intelligent Customer Routing
D. Avaya Aura Experience Portal
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have just installed Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) 2 SP or newer on your Avaya Aura
Experience Portal (AAEP) 6.0. You run your first campaign and the POM monitor appears to shoe an
Active Job, but no outgoing call spears to be made. You notice the following entry in the
CmpMgrService.out log file:
CmpMgrService.out
@2011-10-21-10-24-18|P_POMCM002 | ERROR| POMCM | | | Out call web service returned fault:
user does not have permission to run this Web Service | 192.9.84.93####
Which step must you take to correct the issues and continue with this procedure?
A. Login to Experience Portal Manager (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of "POM Campaign
Manager" and restart the campaign
B. Logging to EPM using a user with an assigned role of "Web Services" and restart theCampaign
C. Login to (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of "Administration" and ensure that the outcall
user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > outbound Settings> voice Server link
has the assigned role of "Web Services"
D. Login to EPM using a user with an assigned role of "Administration" and ensure that the outcall
user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > Outbound Settings > Voice Server
link has assigned the role of "POM Campaign Manager".
Answer: C

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NO.3 You client reported the multi-server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) local PostgreSQL
database has become corrupted and you have determined you must restore the database from a
backup of the system.
After restoring the database from the backup, which three actions must be performed? (Choose
three)
A. Restart the vpms service on the Experience Portal Manager (EPM).
B. Reconnect each Media Processing Platform (MPP) with the EPM.
C. Restart the MPP service from the EPM.
D. Restart the avpSNMPAgentSvc on the EPM.
E. Install a new license file on the EPM.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 You have installed an Orchestration Designer application on a Tomcat application server and
try at call to the application. The test call fails.
What is the best way to validate the application installation?
A. Check the Avaya Aura experience Portal (AAEP) System Monitor.
B. Check AAEP administration System Maintenance > Log Viewer
C. Open a browser window and access the application Http:// <host>: <port>/<application
name>/index.html
D. Look at the Application Detail Report in the AAEP administration.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which three are exit reasons in an Intelligent Customer Routing (ICR) CCA Session detail report?
(Choose three)
A. Call completed
B. Call failed
C. Call completed in SSA
D. Call routed
E. Call transferred
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 After installing a five server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) system you check the port
distribution page only to see the name of the media Processing Platform (MPP) servers in the
system have allocated ports.
Which two are the most probable causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. The AAEP WebLM license has expired; either it was a temporary license or the client's Enterprise
WebLM server is down
B. One or more MPP system resources are overloaded
C. The specified VoIP gatekeeper or SIP gateway is incorrect
D. The Postgres service on the Experience Portal manager (EPM) is not running
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What is the last step that is required after successful installation of intelligent Customer
Routing (ICR) Core?
A. Restart the terracotta service.
B. Restart the ICR Core service.
C. Restart the httpd service.
D. Reboot the machine.
Answer: D

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NO.8 On an existing Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) server, what three are required
when configuring a voice campaign? (Choose three)
A. the IP of the POM server
B. an existing contact strategy
C. the Call Classification Analysis (CCA) timeout to be used
D. an existing contact attribute
E. sufficient voice ports and POM CCA licenses
Answer: B,D,E

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Exam Code: 3601
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which multicast activity should be configured on the edge?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Protocol Independent Multicast - Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
D. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) Snooping and Proxy
Answer: D

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NO.2 A technician is configuring a VSP 9000 to run in High Availability (HA) Mode, and needs to set the Open
Shortest Path First (OSPF) hello timers. What is the recommended setting?
A. auto
B. variable
C. 500 milliseconds
D. greater than one second
Answer: D

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NO.3 In the event of a critical process crash on a CP module, when is CP switchover initiated.?
A. within 3 milliseconds
B. prior to core generation
C. upon receipt of a failure log
D. per the power down algorithm
Answer: C

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NO.4 Buffer wrap is a variable of the Packet Capture Tool (PCAP) enable command, and by default it is set to
true.
Which statement describes what buffer-wrap does when it is set to true?
A. Itenables external flash wrap around.
B. It wrapscaptured frames to the DRAM buffer.
C. It stops packet rapture when the buffer becomes full.
D. It allows the capture to continue when the buffer becomes full.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where is the VSP 9000 log file configured?
A. Menu
B. ACLI
C. Syslog
D. Sysconfig log menu
Answer: B

Avaya   3601   3601   3601

NO.6 To reduce the number of active neighbor adjacencies, what can a technician configure on the VSP 9000
with Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. OSPF passive interfaces
B. OSPFadjacencies limiter
C. OSPF active interfaces limiter
D. OSPFadjacencies summarization
Answer: A

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NO.7 Routers can learn several routes to a given destination network through several protocols.
Which part of the VSP 9000 uses the host route?
A. Equal Cost Multi Path routing (ECMP)
B. The Routing Table Manager (RTM)
C. the hardware
D. the best destination
Answer: B

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NO.8 Equal Cost MultiPath (FCMP) routes apply to Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), Routing Information
Protocol (RIP), Border Gateway Protocol (BGP), Default and Static routes.
With ECMP, how many equal-cost paths can be configured to the same destination prefix?
A. two
B. up to six
C. up to four
D. up to eight
Answer: D

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NO.9 During a VSP 9000 boot up, the following log message appears:
"Powering off card in slot 12 due to a low power condition."
Which statement describes how that card is brought back in service?
A. Add more power to the chassis.
B. Re-direct power to that card from one of the spare SFmodules.
C. Change the card's priority assignment for the power-down algorithm.
D. Configure the existing power distribution to send enough power to that card.
Answer: C

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NO.10 On a VSP 90O0, Just as VLANs am unique within the system, a Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF)
is unique. How many VRF instances can a VLAN be associated with?
A. one
B. one petbrouter
C. one per IP interface in the system
D. each customer VRF instance, plus the firewalland communications server VRF instant
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 6007-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Agile Communication Environment(TM) Implementation Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 A customer has geographically diverse sites and plans to deploy an Avaya ACE
Federation. Their
network includes a Communication Server 1000 (CS1000) system running a supported
software release,
IBM Lotus Sametime, and the associated end-user telephones and clients.
When planning the Federation architecture, which is the platform consideration?
A. An Avaya ACE Federation requires an AvayaACE High Availability (HA) configuration.
B. An AvayaACE Federation requires an AvayaACE Linux-based hardware platform.
C. An Avaya ACE Federation requires a Microsoft Office Communications Server (OCS)
serviceprovider.
D. An Avaya ACE Federation requires an Application Integration Engine (AIE) server.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A technician is verifying an Avaya ACE Hot Desking deployment. Avaya ACE and the
Application
Integration Engine (AIE) are installed, configured, and fully operational.
Ah Avaya ACE administrator previously configured a user ID and password for the Hotdesk
Virtual
Secretary User ID in the Avaya ACE GUI. The Hot Desking application configuration has
been
completed in the AIE GUI.
Which action should be taken to verify that the variable entered for the Hotdesk Virtual
Secretary User ID
in the AIE GUI is correct?
A. Using the Avaya ACE GUI, search for and list the user IDfor the Hotdesk virtual
secretary.Ensurethe
AvayaACE user ID matches the variable entered fur the Hotdesk Virtual Secretary User ID.
B. Using the AIEUser Synchronization tool, generate a report of valid user IDs. Ensure the
variable
enteredtot the Hotdesk Virtual Secretary User ID is listedin the synchronization report.
C. Using the Windows server console, retrieve the local users. Ensure the variable entered
for
theHotdeskVirtualSecretaryuser ID displays inthelist of local Windows user.
D. Ensure the variable entered for theHotdeskVirtual Secretary User ID in the
AIEGUIhasautomatically
populated duringthe AIE installation.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A technician is installing the Application Integration Engine (AIE) software in active
directory mode for a
standalone solution, the AIE software will be installed on a supported server with a supported
Windows
2008 operating system.
Which statement describes an installation prerequisite?
A. An existing version ApacheTomcat is running.
B. An existing version of Java Runtime Environment (JRE)is running.
C. TheWindows serveris configured with the role of DHCP Server.
D. TheWindows server is configured with the role of Web Server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer is deploying an Avaya ACE on Windows for a standalone configuration.
They are also
deploying Corporate Portal and Message Drop and Blast services. The network includes a
SIP-enabled
communication system and 500 end users.
How many Avaya ACE base software licenses are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 500
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer plans to deploy an Avaya ACETM Application Integration Engine (AIE)
version 3.2. As part
of the definition of the project scope of work, the technician wants to ensure the appropriate
operating
system is installed on the host server.
Which software operating systems (OS) is supported?
A. 32-bitor 04-bit Windows 2003 OS
B. 32-bit or 04-bit Windows 2008 OS
C. 32-bit Windows 2003 OS or64-bit Windows 2008 R2 OS
D. 64-bit Windows 2008 OS only
Answer: C

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NO.6 An existing Avaya ACE customer wants a solution that will work with its existing
customer resource
management (CRM) system to notify customers proactively about promotions or offers
relevant to their
individual needs. The customer has an Avaya ACE on Windows core solution and does not
want to
deploy additional hardware.
Which Avaya ACE solution matches the key capabilities that the customer requires?
A. Hot Desking
B. EventResponse Manager
C. Message Drop and Blast
D. WebBrowser and Office Add-ins.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A technician is deploying a Microsoft Desktop Enablement (Web Browser and Office
Add-ins) solution
and has used the Avaya ACE Configuraor interface to build the add-in install packages for
the end
users.
Which action should be taken to verify the Avaya ACE configuration is valid?
A. Using the Avaya ACE GUI, ensureOfficeAddinEnabled and BrowserAddingEnableduser
groupsarepresentin the list of Avaya ACE usergroups.
B. Using the WebSphere Administrative Console, ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabledandBrowserAddingEnabledservicesare Started.
C. Using theWindows serverconsole,run the Addin_service_control.bat file and ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabled and BrowserAddingEnabled services are Started.
D. Using the Application Integration Engine (AIE) GUI Status window, ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabled and
BrowserAddingEnabled services are Started.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A global bank has an Avaya High Availability (HA) ACE system Installed, and wants to
deploy the Hot
Decking application. The customer wants to ensure high availability and reliability for
application users.
Which additional hardware and operating system is required beyond the Avaya HA ACE base
to
support the solution.?
A. One additional Linux server for the Avaya ACE base and two Linux or Windows servers to
host the
Application IntegrationEngine(AIE) software.
B. Two additional Linux servers for the AvayaACE base and twoLinux or Windows servers to
hostthe
AIE software.
C. TwoWindows servers to host the AIEsoftware.
D. No additional hardware, the AvayaACE and AIC software will co-reside on the same
server.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A mid-size enterprise is deploying an Avaya ACE IBM Lotus Sametime Integration
solution. The
customer network includes IBM Lotus Sametime, IBM Lotus Notes, and a communication
Server 1000
system and end-user telephones and clients.
A technician has a work order to install the Avaya ACE Technology Conferencing Service
Provider
Interface (TCSPI) on the Sametime server as part of the UC deployment.
Where can a copy of the latest version of the Avaya ACE TCSPI be obtained?
A. from the Avaya ACE GUIHelp menu
B. from the IBMLotus Sametime server
C. from the Domino server
D. from the IBM Lotus Notes catalog
Answer: C

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NO.10 A technician has completed the installation and configuration of an Avaya ACE and
IBM Lotus
Sametime for an integration solution. The solution includes telephony client presence.
Which action should be taken to ensure the deployment was successful?
A. Log into the Sametime server and ensure the telephony presence plug-in has been added
to the
site.xml file.
B. Log into the Sametime Domino server and ensure the telephony presence plug-in has
beenadded to
theTCSPIconfiguration file.
C. Log into theAvayaACE GUI and ensure contactinformation for the Sametime Connect
client has been
automatically populated by Avaya ACE .
D. Log into the Sametime Connect client andensure that a telephony presence icon
appearsfor
theSametimeConnect client users who are configured for telephony presenceinformation in
AvayaACE .
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 7003-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam)
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the
system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller
card with one high density DSP daughter board.
How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your
customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with
eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive
Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099).
Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customer ¯ s r equi r e ment s?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has
been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not
transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the
primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has
been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security
domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.
With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware
platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T
and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid
network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya
Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that
the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed.
What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots.
D. The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to
register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while
Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can
ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking
issue.
Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call
server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three
Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories.
A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the
node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is
selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be
transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be
transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred
from Element manager to CallServer.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D

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