2013年12月31日星期二

IT-Tests.com provides training on CompTIA FC0-TS1 exam materials

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Exam Code: FC0-TS1
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT for Sales )
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Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following organizations developed the hyper-threading technology?
A. Microsoft
B. Intel
C. Cisco
D. HP
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the other name of a palmtop?
A. PDA
B. Desktop
C. Laptop
D. Tablet
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the maximum limit on the amount of mercury in RoHS material?
A. 10 ppm
B. 1000 ppm
C. 1 ppm
D. 100 ppm
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following are the types of disks or drives for CDs or DVDs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Random Access Memory
B. Rewritable
C. Read Only Memory
D. Recordable
Answer: C, D, and B

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NO.5 Sam works as a Network Administrator for company.com. The company has forty Windows XP based
systems. Sam has been assigned a task to remove malware from the corrupted systems. Which of the
following will he remove to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Hardware
B. Spyware
C. Trojan horses
D. Adware
Answer: D, B, and C

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NO.6 What is the IEEE Standard for Ethernet?
A. IEEE 802.2
B. IEEE 802.4
C. IEEE 802.1
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following ports support hot swapping?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Parallel
B. Serial
C. IEEE 1394
D. USB
Answer: D and C

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NO.8 What are the various standards of SCSI?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SCSI-2
B. SCSI-1
C. SCSI-0
D. SCSI-3
Answer: B, A, and D

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NO.9 Which of the following interfaces is the current standard for digital LCD monitors?
A. DVE
B. VGA
C. DVI
D. SVGA
Answer: C

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NO.10 In which of the following sizes are the ExpressCard modules available?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ExpressCard/54
B. ExpressCard/34
C. ExpressCard/43
D. ExpressCard/45
Answer: B and A

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NO.11 Which of the following motherboards use 5-pin DIN keyboard connectors?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ATA
B. XT
C. AT
D. ATX
Answer: B and C

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NO.12 Which of the following is the most common laptop battery found today?
A. NiCad
B. Lithium-Ion
C. NiMH
D. Energizer
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following statements about High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multi-channel digital audio on a single
cable.
B. It has two types of connectors: Type A and Type B.
C. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than PCI and AGP slots.
D. It is an interface primarily used to connect hard disk and CD drives in a computer.
Answer: B and A

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NO.14 What transfer rate is supported by the 72-pin SO-DIMM?
A. 32-bit
B. 8-bit
C. 64-bit
D. 16-bit
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which type of cleaning solution should be used on the exterior of computer components?
A. Alcohol
B. A glass cleaner
C. Soap and water
D. An antistatic spray
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable?
A. ESD
B. Broadcast storm
C. Surge
D. EMI
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following devices is used to provide visual input that can be easily transferred over the
internet?
A. Solid-state drive
B. Webcam
C. Iomega Zip drive
D. Trackball
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following is the lightest but most expensive battery used in laptops?
A. Li-Ion
B. NiCad
C. NiMH
D. Sodium-Ion
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides
the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Riser card
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
D. Audio/modem riser
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the other name for Firewire.?
A. IEEE 1395
B. IEEE 1394
C. IEEE 1396
D. IEEE 1397
Answer: B

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Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner)
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Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following is the most secure authentication scheme and uses a public key cryptography
and digital certificate to authenticate a user?
A. Form-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Certificate-based authentication
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is frequently used by administrators to verify security policies of their networks
and by attackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromise it?
A. Fuzzer
B. Port scanner
C. MegaPing
D. UDP scan
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following stages are involved in the successful implementation of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Ongoing collaboration solution design
B. Federated identity management
C. Platform implementation
D. Product and service integration
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to conduct network reconnaissance,
which is carried out by a remote attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it
is not authorized/allowed.
What will you do?
A. Use a SuperScan
B. Use a netcat utility
C. Use a vulnerability scanner
D. Use an idle scan
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. DNS
B. QoS
C. H.323
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following are the functions of a network security administrator? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Backing up the files
B. Writing computer software
C. Maintaining and implementing a firewall
D. Developing, maintaining, and implementing IT security
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want the clients and servers in your
organization to be able to communicate in a way that prevents eavesdropping and tampering of data on
the Internet. Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?
A. EFS
B. WEP
C. SSL
D. MS-CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.8 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications and web-based push to
talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following components of a VoIP network is frequently used to bridge video conferencing
connections?
A. MCU
B. Videoconference station
C. IP Phone
D. Call agent
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
Development Lifecycle (SDL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 Which of the following is a declarative access control policy language implemented in XML and a
processing model, describing how to interpret the policies?
A. SAML
B. SOAP
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: D

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NO.13 The Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) consists of various security practices that are grouped under
seven phases. Which of the following security practices are included in the Requirements phase.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Create Quality Gates/Bug Bars
C. Attack Surface Analysis/Reduction
D. Security and Privacy Risk Assessment
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Which of the following terms is about communicating the user's need and ability to communicate, and
the medium through which that communication may occur?
A. Data sharing
B. Presence
C. Instant messaging
D. Audio conferencing
Answer: B

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NO.15 Collaboration platform offers a set of software components and services that enable users to
communicate, share information, and work together for achieving common business goals. What are the
core elements of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Product and service integration
B. Real-time communication
C. Change management
D. Team collaboration
E. Messaging
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.16 SDLC phases include a minimum set of security tasks that are required to effectively incorporate
security in the system development process. Which of the following are the key security activities for the
development/acquisition phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation
B. Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls
C. Determination of privacy requirements
D. Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 In which of the following activities an organization identifies and prioritizes technical, organizational,
procedural, administrative, and physical security weaknesses?
A. Social engineering
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

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NO.19 In which of the following attacks does an attacker intercept call-signaling SIP message traffic and
masquerade as the calling party to the called party and vice-versa?
A. Call tampering
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Eavesdropping
D. Denial of Service
Answer: B

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NO.20 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want to allow some users to access a
particular program on the computers in the network. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Apply remote access policies
B. Apply NTFS permissions
C. Apply group policies
D. Apply account policies
Answer: C

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2013年12月30日星期一

The best of Blue Coat certification BCCPP exam training methods

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true about dynamic bypass list? (Choose all that apply)
(a)Configured polices will not be enforced on client request if the request matches an entry in the bypass
list.
(b)Dynamic bypass entries are lost when ProxySG is restarted
(c)If request made to a site in a forwarding policy is in the bypass list, the site is inaccessible
(d)Dynamic bypass parameters can be configured on Management Console and CLI.
A.All of the above
B.a, b and c only
C.b, c and d only
D.a, c and d only
Answer: B

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NO.2 What criterion is NOT used to determine location awareness of a ProxyClient
A. IP address range
B. Virtual NICs IP address range
C. The IP address of the closest AND concentrator
D. DNS server IP address
Answer: C

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NO.3 A cookie without an expire value will___
A. last until the client cleats cookies from the browser
B. last until the client closes the browser session
C. last until the client logs off
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which method of controlling downloads of certain file types works fastest on ProxySG?
A. Apparent Data Type
B. MIME Type
C. File extension
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true about Reverse Proxy deployment?(Choose all that apply)
(a)Forwarding hosts in the forwarding file must be defined as "server" style
(b)Default-scheme in forwarding file is supported
(c)Protocol conversion between HTTPS <- ->HTTP are automatic
(d)ProxySG should be set with default DENY policy
A.a, b and c only
B.a, c and d only
C.b, c and d only
D.All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following hostnames are NOT matched by the regular expression "www (0 9) (0-9)?
\ .foo\ .com")
A. www.foo.com
B. www01.foo.com
C. www1.foo.com
D. www11.foo.com
Answer: A

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NO.7 url.regex=!\.html$ d\ DENY What is the effect of the above CPL code?
A. Deny any URL that ends with html
B. Deny any URL that does not end with html
C. Deny any URL that ends with htm or html
D. Deny any URL that does not end with htm or html
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following steps have to be performed to support Kerberos Authentication.? (Choose all that
apply)
(a)A virtual URL that resolves to the IP of the ProxySG.
(b)Registering the BCAAA as a Service Principal Name.
(c)Configuring IWA Realm.
(d)Configuring Explicit Proxy.
A.All of the above
B.None of the above
C.a, b and c only
D.b, c and d only
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following are true when attempting to deny access to file types?
A. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-type request header; File Extension objects are
matched against the GET response header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against request
data.
B. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-type response header; File Extension objects are
matched against the GET request header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against response
data.
C. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-encoding response header; File Extension objects
are matched against the GET request header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against response
data.
D. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-type response header; File Extension objects are
matched against the GET request header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against request data.
Answer: C

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NO.10 The Content-encoding header is used to declare the MIME type and compression method used in a
HTTP response.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.11 You can NOT use a self-signed certificate when intercepting SSL traffic.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following statements are true about ProxySG Protocol Detection feature? (Choose all that
apply)
(a)Protocol detection is performed on the server's response.
(b)Protocol detection is performed on the client's request.
(c)Enabling Detect Protocol option will automatically enable early intercept attribute in proxy services.
(d)Protocol detection is performed by looking at the TCP port number.
A.a and b only
B.b and c only
C.c and d only
D.ALL of the above
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply)
(a)The SGOS object store utilizes a directory structure so that objects in cache can be accessed rapidly
(b)Information about a single object in cache be retrieved from the Management console or the
(c)There are two object caches, the object cache which resides on disk and the object cache which
resides in RAM
(d)The SGOS object store is separated by protocol (HTTP cache, FTP cache, etc.)
A.a, b and c only
B.a, c and d only
C.b, c and d only
D.All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following are obvious advantages of having a ProxySG deployed in a Reverse Proxy
environment? (Choose all that apply? (a)The ProxySG has built in DOS protection to guard the actual
web server from denial-ofservice attacks
(b)Increased performance with caching provides an improved Web Experience
(c)Consistent default behavior of cache expiration and validation directives
(d)SSL termination on ProxySG allow SSL offloading, therefore eliminating bottleneck on the web server
side.
A.All of the above
B.a, band c only
C.a, band d only
D.b, cand d only
Answer: C

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NO.15 The ProxySG acts as both an ICAP client and ICAP server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Code: adwords-search
Exam Name: Google (Google Search Advertising Advanced Exam Practice Test)
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Total Q&A: 235 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Ronnie has created an image ad for her design business. When she searches Google, however, she's
not seeing the image ad displayed in the search results' sponsored links. Ronnie then creates a text ad for
Google, and this ad shows up in the results. She then deletes the text ad and actives the image ad again -
which still doesn't show in the Google search results' sponsored links, like the other ads. Why do you
suspect that the image ad isn't showing in the Google Search results as part of the other ads?
A. Her image ad will only appear in the Google Content Network, not in Google Search.
B. Her image ad must first be approved by Google before it'll show in the Google Search resul ts.
C. Her image is probably in a .gif format; images must be in a .jpg format.
D. Her image is probably too big to be used in the Google search listing.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Jerry has downloaded and installed the Google AdWords editor. He manages many ads for his
company, but the web address for his company is changing. He needs a way to quickly and accurately
edit the destination URL for his company's Google AdWords ads, without having to edit them each,
individually. What's the best way for Jerry to edit the entire destination domain for his company?
A. Because Google needs to approve destination URL changes, Jerry will have to use the online Google
AdWords editor, and wait for Google's approval.
B. Jerry can do this through Google AdWords editor and the Campaign Manager.
C. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor through Campaign Manager;by choosing all
campaigns and then editing the domain URL for all campaigns.
D. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor, with the Advanced Editing Tools and the
Advanced URL Changes option
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are a Google AdWords professional explaining how your client should create a budget for their
Google AdWords campaign. The client is confused how Google AdWords determines the lowest possible
value for the highest position of the ad. You explain that Google AdWords uses a combination of the
Quality Score and the CPC bid. The customer still isn't satisfied and wants a more in-depth explanation.
Which of the following is the best description how Google AdWords determines ad ranks in search pages?
A. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing above you by your Quality Score, then
round off to the nearest cent.
B. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the average bid of all ads competing you ¯r e you rkeywords
by your Quality Score, then round off to the nearest cent.
C. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing beneath you by your Quality Score, then
round off to the nearest cent.
D. Google AdWords considers whoever bids the highest for a keyword and then that person moves to the
top of the order.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Gary is explaining the process of the Google Search Query to his manager. Gary states that the pages
that Google believes is important will show up higher in the organic search results. What term should
Gary actually use to describe the order of search results by Google?
A. Indexing Technology
B. Hypertext-Matching Analysis
C. PageRank Technology
D. Organic search listings
Answer: C

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NO.5 Google recommends that ad creators include a strong call to action phrase in their
advertisements. Which of the following is the weakest call to action phrase?
A. Call today
B. Click here
C. Buy
D. Purchase
Answer: B

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NO.6 Alice manages several AdWords accounts and she has three assistants who help with the management
of the accounts. Alice receives a phone call from one of her clients regarding recent Google AdWords
clicks. The client reports that he thinks something is amiss with his account, and thinks someone has
changed the budget. How can Alice review any changes to the account and, if necessary, determine if
someone has made changes to the account's budget.?
A. Alice should use the Change History Tool.
B. Alice should use the AdWords API.
C. Alice should use the My Client Center.
D. Alice should use the AdWords Editor.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have created several campaigns with Google AdWords for your clients. You are using the Manager
Defined Spend for your budgets in Google AdWords. When you create a new start date for a budget, what
requirement does Google have in regard to the new budget and existing budgets that you manage?
A. Managed account budgets must be approved by two parties before the ad will begin display.
B. Start dates for new budgets can't overlap with other budgets that may already be set up for the
managed account.
C. Managed account budgets cannot exceed $100 per day.
D. Managed account budgets can't start and end on the same day for more than three managed
accounts.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
advertise is related to Iron Man. Charlie would like to create an embedded match keyword targeting ad for
his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie Iron Man. Which one of
the following would allow Charlie's ads to appear for Iron Man Cards and Iron Man Collectibles, but not for
the exact match of Iron Man?
A. ("Iron Man")
B. {Iron Man}
C. +["Iron Man"]
D. -[Iron Man]
Answer: D

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NO.9 Ivan has created advertisements for his online printing business. His ads have been running for two
months, and he'd like to get a sense of where his ads are geographically being shown. How can Ivan see
the geographical information where his Google AdWords are being shown?
A. Ivan must create a Geographic Performance Report in his account.
B. Unless Ivan creates a location targeting ad, he won't see this information.
C. Ivan must create an IP Address Report; Google will resolve the IP Address to locations.
D. Ivan must create an IP Address report, and then resolve the IP addresses to locations.
Answer: A

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NO.10 John has started a new business that sells bumper stickers online. His primary advertising focus is
branding his business name, and getting as much exposure as possible on the Internet. John has hired
you to help him manage his Google advertising. Based on what you know so far, what approach would
you recommend to John?
A. SEM based on web content
B. SEO for good web content
C. CPM models
D. PPC models
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are creating a new Google AdWords campaign for your company. What is the default setting for
new Google AdWords campaigns in regard to search sites and content network sites?
A. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google search results home page; you must opt into other
components of the Google Network.
B. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google Content Network.
C. Your new campaign is opted in to the entire Google Network: Google search, search partners, and the
Content Network with 'Relevant pages across the entire network' in the default.
D. Your new campaign will only appear in Google search results and search partners.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Terri has created a website for her web design business. Through her SEO efforts and good web
content, her site has reached the top position in Google's organic search results for certain keywords. On
her site, she has added the phrase 'Recommended by Google' in the header. She does not, however, use
this phrase in her Google AdWords ads. Is this a problem according to Google AdWords policies?
A. Yes, Terri must add this phrase to her Google AdWords advertisements too.
B. No, Terri can add this info to her site as long as she doesn't put this phrase in her Google AdWords
advertisements.
C. No, Terri's site is recommended by Google as she's on the top, in search results on certain keywords.
D. Yes, Google doesn't allow ads or sites to add such language that may mislead readers to believe her
site is directly affiliated with Google.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You have created a Google AdWords ad using the keyword [oil painting] for your advertisement.
Which of the following searches would most likely cause your ad to be displayed on Google?
A. Paintings in Oil
B. Oil Painting
C. Any phrase with the keyword oil painting, such as old oil paintings
D. Watercolor painting
Answer: B

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NO.14 Kelly has created two ad groups for her realty business in Ohio. In both ad groups, she's identified the
keyword 'Columbus Condos' for her ads. What problem exists within this scenario that could affect Kelly's
ads?
A. Kelly should not have keywords competing against one another.
B. Kelly should merge all the ads into one campaign so that her ads will show up twice in search results.
C. By having two ad groups with the same keyword, Kelly may pay considerably more for her ads
because the ads will appear twice in search results.
D. Kelly should only have one ad group, not multiple groups.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Nancy is reviewed her billing summary for her Google AdWords account. There is a line item in the
billing summary titled 'Adjustment - Click Quality'. What does this line item mean?
A. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that took longer than five seconds to resolve.
B. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her, for Google incurred cost overruns for displaying her ad
beyond her given budget.
C. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that didn't take visitors to her domain.
D. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that were deemed invalid clicks.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Mary has a Google AdWords account, and she feels that her Google AdWords aren't performing well.
Mary wants to make adjustments to her ad, to get more clickthroughs to her website. Which of the
following optimizations is likely to help Mary increase her clickthrough rate?
A. Mary should stop using an image ad and use a text ad only, in Google search.
B. Mary should focus on her website by adding content.
C. Mary should focus on ad quality and use negative keywords, to eliminate extra impressions.
D. Mary should create multiple campaigns, and track the performance of each campaign.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Nancy has created a campaign for her boutique. She has customized the ad and targeted her city and
specific content. Nancy has noticed that her ad performs best on Tuesdays and Wednesdays, as people
prepare for their weekend plans. Nancy would like to automatically adjust her bids for keywords on
Tuesdays and Wednesdays. Is this possible?
A. No, Google AdWords can automatically change the bids, but only for seven-day increments.
B. Yes, Nancy can do this through Google AdWords' Demographic bidding.
C. No, Nancy will need to login into Google AdWords, and manually change her bids for these two days.
D. Yes, Nancy can do this through Google AdWords' Ad scheduling.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Paula has created a Google AdWords campaign for her company. She has created a good group of
keywords for her ads, and she's eager to get visitors to her site as soon as possible. Paula would like
Google to display her ads as often as possible, until her budget is reached. What type of delivery option
should Paula choose for her ads?
A. Instant delivery
B. Accelerated delivery
C. Click-cost delivery
D. Standard delivery
Answer: B

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NO.19 If you open your Google AdWords account and want to see instant insights into your account's
performance, where would you look?
A. Account Statistics
B. Reports
C. CTR
D. Google Analytics
Answer: A

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NO.20 Henry has been running Google AdWords for the past six months. He has a good clickthrough rate, but
he feels that his sales aren't in proportion to the clickthrough rate he's receiving. Henry wants to optimize
his site, but he wants to identify where he's losing visitors on the way to conversion. Which Google
Analytics report could Henry run, to help identify this trend and show optimization opportunities?
A. Top exit pages report
B. Site overlay report
C. Top landing pages report
D. Funnel visualization report
Answer: D

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NO.21 Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
advertise is related to Iron Man. Charlie would like to create an embedded match keyword targeting ad for
his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie Iron Man. Which one of
the following would allow Charlie's ads to appear for Iron Man Cards and Iron Man Collectibles, but not for
the exact match of Iron Man?
A. +["Iron Man"]
B. -[Iron Man]
C. ("Iron Man")
D. {Iron Man}
Answer: B

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NO.22 You have created a report for you and your client, regarding several performance factors. You receive
an email asking you to download your report from the Report Center. Your report, as it turns out, is too big
for Google to email. What is the maximum size of reports in an email sent through Google?
A. 25MB
B. 2MB
C. 50MB
D. 66MB]
Answer: B

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NO.23 You are managing an AdWords campaign for your organization. You have two assistants who work
with you to manage several ads through the Google AdWords Editor. You'd like to leave comments to
items in the AdWords Editor to help communicate changes, inform your assistants, and allow them to
respond to your queries. What's the correct path to leave a comment on an item in Google AdWords
Editor?
A. You can't leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can attach items, such
as .txt or .doc items to leave notes.
B. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords Editor
and click Add Comment at the bottom of the tab.
C. You can't leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can use a Notepad
document (or any document in .txt format) and attach it to items.
D. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords Editor
and click Insert Comment from the Extras column.
Answer: B

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NO.24 You are a consultant for a wedding photographer, and you're helping her with her Google AdWords
account. The photographer doesn't understand why her ad for the Google Network hasn't started
generating traffic yet. You explain that the ad has just been created, and that there are three qualifications
for the ad to go live. Which of the following is NOT one of the three qualifications for an ad to go live on the
Google Network?
A. The ad must be prepaid for thirty days.
B. The ad must meet the partner requirements.
C. The ad must be opted into the Google Network.
D. The ad must be reviewed and approved.
Answer: A

Google   adwords-search questions   adwords-search

NO.25 You manage multiple accounts for Google AdWords as part of your SEO business. You have two
assistants who help you manage the accounts through sub-My Client Centers. Because this part of your
business has been growing, you have hired a third assistant and created a third My Client Center. What is
the process of moving an account from one sub-MCC to the new sub-MCC?
A. From the top-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move and
then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the account should be moved to,
and then Save Changes.
B. From the sub-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move to
the new sub-level MCC and then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the
account should be moved to, and then Save Changes.
C. Accounts cannot be moved between sub-MCCs.
D. From the new sub-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move
to the new sub-level MCC and then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the
account should be moved from, and then Save Changes.
Answer: A

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NO.26 You are investigating Google AdWords double-serving policy for a client. You learn that Google
AdWords doesn't allow multiple ads from the same client, based on duplicate keywords. You also learn
that individuals advertising for themselves, or for their ownbusinesses, may only have a single AdWords
account. Does Google have any exceptions for the number of AdWords account a person can manage?
A. Yes, if you have two or more products to sell from the same domain, you can manage one Google
AdWords account for each product.
B. Yes, if you use a My Client Center account, you may have multiple accounts.
C. No. All Google AdWords participants can have just one Google AdWords account.
D. Yes, if you have two or more landing sites on different domains, you can manage one Google AdWords
account for each domain.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Steve is a web marketing consultant, and he's reviewing a client's Google AdWords. Steve is
interested in the keyword analysis field on the Keywords tab, in the client's campaign. When Steve looks
at the keywords quality score, he can determine how well the keyword is likely to perform.
What is the scale that Google displays the Quality Score?
A. Very high, Moderate, Low, Poor
B. Google does not reveal the Quality Score as it is proprietary information.
C. 1 to 100
D. 1 to 10
Answer: D

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NO.28 Beth runs a photography business and she wants to make certain, her advertisements only run in the
evening. How is this possible with Google AdWords?
A. Beth can pause and restart her ads whenever she likes.
B. Beth can use the ad scheduling tool to choose when her ads should appear.
C. Beth can use the conversion optimizer to indicate the hours she'd like to optimize her ad for
conversion.
D. Google won't automatically adjust when the ads are displayed.
Answer: B

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NO.29 You're reviewing a campaign you've created for your company with your manager. The manager is
curious about the budget setting on the campaign's tab. What does the budget value mean?
A. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each week.
B. It's the maximum amount you'll spend for one click on your ad.
C. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each month.
D. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each day.
Answer: D

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NO.30 You are working with your client to optimize their Google AdWords ad. Which targeting tool can you
use, to predict the average cost-per-click for your keywords?
A. Traffic Estimator
B. Keyword tool
C. Placement tool
D. Search Terms Report
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 9A0-079
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe@ RoboHelp@ 7 ACE Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 134 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which is the file name extension of a Snippet.?
A. XPJ
B. HTS
C. CHM
D. CSS
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which file type may be imported if FrameMaker is NOT installed on the same computer as RoboHelp?
A. FRM
B. MIF
C. BK
D. BOOK
E. FM
Answer: B

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NO.3 How should you apply a Conditional Build Tag to a project topic?
A. Drag the Conditional Build Tag from the Conditional Build Tag pod to the topic on the Topic List pod.
B. Drag the Conditional Build Tag from the Conditional Build Tag pod to the Design window of an open
topic.
C. Drag a topic on the Topic List pod to a Conditional Build Tag on the Conditional Build Tag pod.
D. Apply the Conditional Build Tag to a CSS and then apply the CSS to a project topic.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your project deliverable is a file with the extension CHM. Which Single Source Layout would you
choose?
A. WebHelp
B. WebHelp Pro
C. FlashHelp
D. MS HTML Help
Answer: D

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NO.5 You want to have the option to include or exclude content from your output. What should you do before
you generate the project?
A. select content and apply a snippet from the right click menu.
B. select content and apply conditional build tag from the right click menu.
C. select content and apply a user defined variable from the right click menu.
D. select content and apply an index keyword from the right click menu.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are using the Printed Documentation Single Source Layout to create an MS Word document. You
want to insure that Glossary hotspot expanding text is shown in the resulting document. What should you
do?
A. click the Advanced button of the Printed Documentation Dialog box > Select Include glossary text from
Advanced Options dialog box and click OK
B. select the project's Glossary from the dropdown list of the Printed Documentation Dialog box
C. choose Tools > Glossary Hotspot Wizard > select Automatically add definitions for all topics and click
Finish
D. click the Advanced button of the Printed Documentation Dialog box > Select Include expanding text
from Advanced Options dialog box and click OK
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which paragraph style is typically used to efficiently split a Word document into new topics when
importing into RoboHelp?
A. Title
B. Heading item 1
C. Inline Styles
D. Body Text
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which is the file name extension for an Index project file?
A. XPJ
B. HHK
C. HHC
D. CHM
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have some content that you want to exclude when you generate MS HTML Help output. What
should you do?
A. Create and apply a user defined variable.
B. Create and apply a snippet.
C. Create and apply a conditional build tag.
D. Create and apply a bookmark link.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are importing a PDF document into RoboHelp. Which three statements about the Import PDF
Wizard are true? (Choose three)
A. create new topics based on style
B. create topics based on table of contents
C. create a new topic for each PDF page
D. convert as Cascading Style Sheet (CSS)
E. create topics using encrypted PDF
F. convert as image
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.11 You are generating a PDF document from the Printed Documentation General dialog box. It is important
that readers can access and jump to cross references in the output file. Which should you select from the
Adobe PDF Settings dialog box?
A. attach source file to Adobe PDF
B. add bookmarks to Adobe PDF
C. add links to Adobe PDF
D. enable accessibility and reflow with Tagged PDF.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which item may be included in a snippet?
A. bookmarks
B. tables
C. header
D. footer
Answer: B

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NO.13 You want to create a table of contents when importing a MS Word document into your RoboHelp
project. What should you do?
A. In the Word document, assign custom TOC styles to the headings you want to import
B. Import the document and in RoboHelp's TOC editor, click the Auto Create TOC icon
C. In the Word document, create an automatic table of contents based on heading styles prior to importing
D. After importing the Word document, create subfolders containing topics in RoboHelp that match the
books and pages in the TOC
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are preparing to import a long MS Word document that needs to be broken up into separate HTML
topics. What should you do to prepare the Word document to split it into separate topics?
A. create and apply Heading item 1 consistently to all headings in the Word document
B. delete any inline styles that may be applied in the original Word document
C. eliminate any broken cross reference links
D. assure heading styles are applied consistently and modify if they are not
Answer: D

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NO.15 You have text in a TOC item that sometimes changes. What should you do to manage this most
efficiently in the TOC editor?
A. right-click the TOC item, choose rename
B. assign a User Defined Variable to the TOC item
C. create a Snippet for the TOC item
D. create a custom TOC with a different title for the TOC item
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which command should you choose to show user defined variables as green text in the Design Editor?
A. View > Show > Positioning
B. View > Show > Tag List
C. View > Show > Fields
D. View > Show > Conditional Areas
E. View > Show > Glyphs
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which is NOT a valid Alignment option in the Breadcrumb Options dialog box?
A. Left.
B. Center.
C. Right.
D. Justified.
Answer: D

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NO.18 You have created two conditional build tags (Print and Online) and assigned them to content and
topics. When you generate WebHelp, you create a conditional build tag expression and select the Print
tag. Which will occur?
A. the output will include all topics and content that has the Print tag assigned.
B. the output will exclude all topics and content that has the Online tag assigned.
C. the output will exclude all topics and content that has the Print tag assigned.
D. the output will exclude all topics and content that has no tags assigned.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You have been asked to change the name of the Start page that is created when you generate your
Help. What should you do?
A. Show the Properties of the Single Source Layout and select the Start page from the Default topic area
of the Option dialog box.
B. Show the Properties of the Single Source Layout and type the name of the new Start page into the
Output Folder and Start Page area of the Option dialog box.
C. After generating the project, minimize or close RoboHelp. Then, using Windows Explorer, open the
output folder, find the existing Start page and rename it (you can right-click the file and choose Rename).
D. Show the Properties of the Single Source Layout and edit the name of the Start page on the Skin
Editor.
Answer: B

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NO.20 To which item can a user defined variables be assigned?
A. glossary term
B. cascading style sheet
C. image map
D. table of contents book
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 9A0-055
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe InDesign CS3 ACE Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 You have a database that contains 25 records. Each record contains multiple data fields. You want to
place the data as repeated data in your layout. Which option in the XML Import Options dialog box should
you choose?
A.Cloning
B.Duplicating
C.Copying
D.Merging
Correct:A

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NO.2 You have three objects in your document named Object 1, Object 2, and Object 3. You select Object 1
in your layout and apply a drop shadow to it. With the object selected, you create a new object style and
name it Drop Shadow. You then apply the Drop Shadow style to Object 2 and Object 3. You edit the Drop
Shadow style. Which objects will be modified to reflect the changes to the style?
A.All three objects are modified.
B.Only Object 1 is modified.
C.Only Object 2 and Object 3 are modified.
D.None of the objects are modified.
Correct:C

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NO.3 You use the Position tool to select and resize the content of a graphic frame. You press the Shift key,
select a frame handle, and drag inward. What happens to the frame and its content?
A.The frame is resized proportionately, but the content remains of the same size.
B.The content is resized proportionately, but the frame remains of the same size.
C.Both the frame and the content are resized proportionately.
D.The content or frame cannot be resized by using the Position tool.
Correct:B

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NO.4 You want to rotate a graphic around its upper-left corner by using the Free Transform tool. What should
you do?
A.In the Control panel, set the Reference Point option for the graphic to the upper-left corner. Then, rotate
the graphic.
B.Drag the center point of the graphic to the upper-left corner by using the Free Transform tool. Then,
rotate the graphic.
C.Place the Free Transform tool at the upper-left corner of the graphic. Then, rotate the graphic.
D.You cannot rotate the graphic around its upper-left corner with the Free Transform tool.
Correct:D

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NO.5 You are importing XML into an existing InDesign document. You want to format the text as efficiently as
possible by using existing InDesign styles. Which feature should you use?
A.Map Tags to Styles
B.Map Styles to Tags
C.Load DTD
D.Merge Content
Correct:A

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NO.6 Which element is NOT tagged in XML when you export a layout to XML after auto tagging?
A.Text frames
B.Table cells
C.Footnotes
D.Images
Correct:C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button. You draw a red and a blue circle by using the Ellipse tool. You center the red
circle inside the blue circle as shown in the exhibit What happens when you select both circles and then
select Exclude Overlap from the Pathfinder panel?
A.The two circles merge and become one large, blue circle.
B.The operation cannot be completed because the result would be an empty region.
C.The blue circle disappears, leaving only the red circle.
D.The red circle disappears, leaving a hole in the center of the blue circle. The object that remains is red.
Correct:D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button. You use the Polygon tool to create the five-sided star as shown in the exhibit.
You add a 6-point black stroke to the object and set the Join to Miter join. What happens to the points of
this star when you decrease the value of Miter Limit?
A.The points of the star eventually are beveled, or cut off.
B.The points of the star grow longer.
C.The points of the star grow thinner.
D.The points of the star are not changed.
Correct:A

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NO.9 Which transparency issues can you identify by using the Flattener Preview panel?
A.Precise printing of spot colors.
B.Accurate color.
C.Impact of different blending modes.
D.Rasterized vector text.
Correct:D

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NO.10 You have placed a PSD file containing editable text into an InDesign document. You want the font used
in the PSD file to remain as vector and to be saved during the Package process. What should you do?
A.Save the image as Photoshop PDF with embedded fonts.
B.Save the image as Photoshop PDF without embedding fonts.
C.Save the image as high resolution TIFF before placing in InDesign.
D.Save the image as a 24-bit PNG file before placing it into InDesign.
Correct:A

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NO.11 The visual design of an InDesign layout is different from the XML content being imported. Where will
the XML data be placed in InDesign when you import the data?
A.At the end of the InDesign layout.
B.At the top of the InDesign layout.
C.In the structure pane.
D.In the tagged frames in the InDesign document.
Correct:C

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NO.12 Which is checked as part of the preflight process?
A.Transparency Flattener Preset options
B.Ink Limit
C.Image Scaling Factor
D.Placed InDesign files
Correct:D

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NO.13 You create a button on a master page, add Rollover and Down states to the button, define the
appearance of the button states, and add a hyperlink destination to the button. Which component will be
missing when you export the InDesign document as a PDF document?
A.The Rollover and Down states of the button.
B.The appearance of the states of the button.
C.All actions performed on the button.
D.The hyperlink destination attached to the button.
Correct:D

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NO.14 Which item is exported when you export an InDesign document as XHTML?
A.Graphics created in InDesign
B.Embedded images
C.Bullets and numbered lists
D.Bookmarks
Correct:C

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NO.15 What happens to the colors in a document when you apply Simulate Overprint to the document when
exporting it to PDF?
A.Spot colors are converted to Process color equivalents.
B.Process colors are converted to Spot color equivalents.
C.All colors in the document are retained.
D.Overprinted objects are mapped to the same plate.
Correct:A

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NO.16 Which is included when you export an InDesign file as XML?
A.Only tagged content.
B.Tagged content and its formatting.
C.Only the layout of tagged content.
D.Tagged content, its formatting, and layout.
Correct:A

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NO.17 Which type of file is generated after you export an InDesign document to Digital Editions?
A.ZIP
B.EPUB
C.RAR
D.EPGT
Correct:B

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NO.18 Which linked files are NOT copied to the package folder when you package an InDesign document?
A.Linked images on the Pasteboard.
B.Linked images in the Slug area.
C.Linked images in the Bleed area.
D.Images on hidden layers.
Correct:A

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button. Using the Pen tool, you draw the curve as shown in Figure 4.1A. You now want
to edit this curve and create the one as shown in Figure 4.1B. What should you do?
A.Use the Selection tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the
direction point downward to its new position.
B.Use the Direct Selection tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the
direction point downward to its new position.
C.Use the Convert Direction Point tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then,
drag the direction point downward to its new position.
D.Use the Pen tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the direction
point downward to its new position.
Correct:C

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NO.20 Which information is displayed in the Info panel when you select a text frame?
A.The height and width of the text frame.
B.The X and Y coordinates of the frame reference point.
C.The character, word, sentence, and paragraph counts of the text in the frame.
D.The color values of the text in the frame.
Correct:A

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