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Exam Code: HP2-Z09
Exam Name: HP (TippingPoint Advanced Technical Security Products)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.2 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.3 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.4 Jack, Kevin, and Louise are responsible for various administrative functions on the TippingPoint
solution. Louise is the manager of the group and is defined on the SMS as a super-user. Jack and Kevin
are both defined as administrators. Jack is responsible for network operations and uptime, and Kevin is
responsible for security policy.
Which permissions should you grant? (Select two.)
A. Jack should only be granted permissions for the IPS devices.
B. Louise should be granted permissions to all segment groups, devices, and profiles.
C. Kevin should be granted permissions for the IPS devices.
D. Kevin should only be granted permissions to the appropriate profiles and segment groups.
Answer: A, D

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NO.5 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P add r es
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.6 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that would
best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber and
copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments. The
aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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NO.8 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B, C

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NO.9 An IPS can be managed and unmanaged from the SMS. How can you unmanage an IPS? (Select two.)
A. from the SMS Web interface
B. from the SMS client
C. from the IPS LSM Web interface
D. from the IPS CLI using conf t sms disable
Answer: B, C

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NO.10 Which statements about the Digital Vaccine are true.? (Select three.)
A. Installing a new Digital Vaccine will reboot the IPS.
B. Some filters have a Recommended setting of Disabled.
C. Some filters have a Recommended setting of Enabled.
D. Digital Vaccines can be automatically down loaded and installed on the IPS.
E. New Digital Vaccines are released at 2 p.m. EST.
Answer: B, D, E

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Exam Code: HP2-Z17
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Network Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Which recent acquisition demonstrates HP's commitment to provide the best enterprise networking
solution?
A. Palm
B. Nortel
C. Citrix
D. 3Com/H3C
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which environment ensures that all resources and processes are controlled by
a shared-services engine that provisions and adapts application environments to instantly respond to
business demands?
A. Converged Infrastructure
B. Management Infrastructure
C. Data Infrastructure
D. Monitoring Infrastructure
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer considering an HP Networking solution is concerned about power usage. You inform the
customer that Miercom certified HP Networking solutions as "Green." What did Miercom find concerning
HP switch energy consumption?
A. HP switches use as much as 20% less energy than the competition.
B. HP switches use as much as 30% less energy than the competition.
C. HP switches use as much as 40% less energy than the competition.
D. HP switches use as much as 50% less energy than the competition.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer has a legacy, proprietary technology that lacks choice. You tell the customer that HP
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solutions?
A. HP Networking solutions provide up to 10% lower cost of ownership.
B. HP Networking solutions provide up to 15% lower cost of ownership.
C. HP Networking solutions provide up to 35% lower cost of ownership.
D. HP Networking solutions provide up to 65% lower cost of ownership.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The A-Series portfolio is perfect for which customers?
A. companies with small and/or simple deployments
B. companies with large and/or complex deployments
C. small companies
D. large companies
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y30
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Networking Technologies)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 What is a fit Access Point?
A. an AP that can provide WLAN services without a controller
B. an AP that has no intelligence and requires a wireless controller
C. an AP that can be deployed autonomously or with a controller
D. an AP that provides some intelligence under the management of a controller
Answer: D

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NO.2 You must define a hostname on an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A. manager
B. system
C. administrator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch at
factory default settings.?
Switch# exit
A. The user is logged out of the console.
B. The privilege level moves from manager to operator.
C. Unsaved configuration changes are deleted.
D. The user exits from configuration mode.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which type of port can handle more than one untagged VLAN on an HP A-Series switch?
A. trunk
B. access
C. aggregated
D. hybrid
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have entered the following command at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Switch(vlan-1)# ip
address 192.168.1.225/24
The switch's other VLAN and IP parameters are at factory defaults. While testing this configuration, you
find that the switch cannot ping a server located at 192.168.2.22. You have confirmed the server is up and
available. This server is located in a data center not directly connected to your switch.
What must you configure on the switch to enable connectivity between these two devices?
A. Add a default gateway.
B. Modify the IP address to 192.168.1.225/26.
C. Enable IP routing.
D. Add the server to allowed hosts list.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which HP E-Series switch features redundant management and fabric modules?
A. E2910 al
B. E8212 zl
C. E5412 zl
D. E4208 vl
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have uploaded an application file named "A12500.bin" to an HP A12500 switch.
Which command ensures this file is used during the next boot cycle?
A. boot-file cf:/A12500.bin main
B. load appfile cf:/A12500.bin main
C. boot-loader file cf:/A12500.bin main
D. set boot file cf:/A12500.bin main
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which HP E-Series switch models are fixed-port switches? (Select two.)
A. E8212 zl
B. E4204 vl
C. E6600-24G
D. E5406 zl
E. E3500-48G yl
Answer: CE

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NO.9 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch?
E3500(vlan-44)#interface 23
A. The CLI displays the status of port 23.
B. Port 23 becomes a member of VLAN 44.
C. Port 23 is enabled.
D. The CLI enters the configuration context for port 23.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which interface is available for managing A-Series switches at factory default settings?
A. Telnet
B. menu
C. console
D. web
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which A-Series switch is designed for the large data center and the enterprise core?
A. A5820
B. A7500
C. A9500
D. A12500
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch?
Switch(vlan-100)# end
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A. The CLI displays the Operator prompt.
B. The CLI displays the Manager prompt.
C. VLAN 100 is deleted from the switch.
D. The CLI displays the global configuration prompt.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You must configure VLANs and ports on an HP A7500 switch at default settings. What is the effect of
the following commands?
[SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port link-type trunk [SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port trunk permit vlan 100 101
A. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101 with 802.1Q tags. Traffic for VLAN 1 will be
untagged. Traffic for all other VLANs will be discarded.
B. The switch will add port 1/0/1 to a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) that is a tagged member of VLANs
100 and 101.
C. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101, but will discard traffic for all other VLANs.
D. The switch will forward VLAN 101 traffic with 802.1Q tags. VLAN 100 traffic will be untagged.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement accurately describes the state of Gigabit Ethernet 3/0/12 in the HP A-Series switch
configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. The interface will be a tagged member of VLAN 12.
B. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 1.
C. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 12.
D. The interface will drop all incoming packets for VLAN 12.
Answer: C

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NO.15 At the CLI of an HP E5406 zl switch, you have assigned ports A1-A4 to VLAN 70 as untagged
members. All other configuration parameters on the E5406 zl are at default settings. The E5406 zl is
connected through port B1 to an HP E8212 zl switch. The E8212 zl has been configured with an IP
interface associated with VLAN 70, and IP routing has been enabled. On the E5406 zl, what must you do
to enable the E8212 zl to act as default gateway for VLAN 70 clients?
A. Define an IP interface in VLAN 70.
B. Configure port B1 to be a member of VLAN 70.
C. Define the VLAN 70 IP address of the E8212 zl as the default gateway.
D. Add a static route to the E8212 to the E5406 zl route table.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which view is indicated by the following prompt on an HP A7500 switch? <A7500>
A. system
B. operator
C. user
D. console
Answer: C

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NO.17 You have initiated a console session on an HP A-Series switch at default settings. What is your
privilege level?
A. Visit (0)
B. Monitor (1)
C. System (2)
D. Manage (3)
Answer: D

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NO.18 You must reset the startup configuration of an HP A-Series switch to factory defaults. Which CLI view
will enable you to complete this task?
A. manager view
B. global configuration view
C. system view
D. user view
Answer: D

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NO.19 You must configure SSH on an HP A7500 switch. Which item must be generated on the switch?
A. passphrase
B. shared secret
C. self-signed certificate
D. encryption keys
Answer: D

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NO.20 You must configure a port on an A5800 switch to support protocol-based VLANs and port-based
VLANs. Which port type supports this requirement?
A. hybrid
B. access
C. aggregated
D. trunk
E. tagged
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-D11
Exam Name: HP (Designing HP Virtualization Solutions [2010])
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 What are indications that a business needs virtualization? (Select two.)
A. applications and business services not being delivered on time
B. IT operations that are minimally impacted by business fluctuations
C. under-utilized IT infrastructure
D. reductions in maintenance windows
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which HP StorageWorks products or solutions provide virtualized scale-up storage? (Select two.)
A. X9000 Network Storage Systems
B. HPStorageWorks 4400 Scalable NAS File Services
C. X5000 Storage Systems
D. P4000 SAN Solutions
E. Enterprise Virtual Array (EVA)
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 An EVA solution, currently managed by an Array-Based Management (ABM), will be expanded to a
Continuous Access solution. Which prerequisite must be met in order to implement the solution?
A. register SVSP Continuous Access licenses inCommandView EVA
B. install HP Insight Remote Support Standard on physical server
C. register Business Copy licenses in CommandView EVA
D. switchCommandView EVA to Server-Based Management (SBM)
Answer: D

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Product benefits often connect directly to customer business requirements that
represent opportunities for virtualization. Some examples of this include such things as accelerating
growth, reducing costs, lessening risk, and improving manageability and security.
Match each requirement to the way that virtualization helps a business achieve it.
Answer:

NO.5 LACCD is the largest community college district in the United States, educating more than 130,000
students at nine campuses spread throughout 36 cities in the greater Los Angeles area.
What are some of the business requirements that led LACCD to migrate from a distributed
desktop PC architecture to an HP Client Virtualization Solution? (Select two.)
A. Educational institutions like LACCD must meet a broad range of requirements defined by users.
B. LACCD was in the midst of a downsizing and consolidation initiative.
C. LACCD could dictate technology capabilities from the top down.
D. School administrators at LACCD use a wide variety of applications where security is essential.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M32
Exam Name: HP (Project and Portfolio Management Center 8.x Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 How do you enable tracking of scheduled and actual work appropriated to requests?
A. Manually create data fields on requests.
B. Manually create data fields on requests and link to resources.
C. Enable the Work Item field group.
D. Enable the Demand Management Scheduling Fields field group.
E. Set the corresponding field attributes.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your manager asks you about setting up email notifications that can be triggered on a request. How
should you respond?
A. Notifications can be configured for any field on a request.
B. Notifications can be configured only on custom fields.
C. Notifications can be configured only on specific standard fields.
D. Notifications can be configured only on drop-down list boxes.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the workflow step sources? (Select three.)
A. Conditions
B. Flowcharts
C. Executions
D. Decisions
E. Graphics
F. Boolean
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 When defining a timeout transition in a step source, which radio button do you click to define the
timeout?
A. Specific Event
B. Specific Result
C. Other errors
D. Specific Error
Answer: D

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NO.5 On the Request for Change request type, the user wants the Approved By field to be required when the
selected value for the Environment equals Production. What should you do to accomplish this?
A. Configure the Request Field Status Dependencies.
B. Create a simple default rule for the request type and set the event to Apply on Creation.
C. Create an advanced request type rule using SQL Default Logic.
D. Create an advanced request type rule using UI Rule Logic.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which tab do you click on to check if a validation is being used by other entities?
A. Usage
B. Ownership
C. Used By
D. Values
Answer: C

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NO.7 Currently, all users can create an IS Release Calendar Change request. How do you change this so
only a specified group can create this request?
A. Make a copy of the request and update the workflow security.
B. Change the access grants for the specified group only.
C. Set Field Level restrictions to the specified group for any user-based data fields on the request type.
D. Go to User Access on the request type and configure the participant permissions.
E. Modify the ownership information for the request type.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What must you edit to change the transition name from Complete to Approved?
A. the workflow validation value only
B. the workflow name only
C. the workflow validation value and the transition name
D. the workflow validation value and the workflow name
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which display options are available on a decision workflow step? (Select two.)
A. Always
B. Conditional
C. Never
D. Only When Active
E. Immediate
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 What is the main function of a workflow parameter?
A. It allows you to capture additional data that a request type is unable to capture to be shown in the
request type as a field.
B. It allows you to capture the result of a workflow step and use this result to direct other stages in the
process.
C. It allows you to capture the value of a field in the request type and use this value to direct other stages
in the process.
D. It allows you to capture the result of a workflow step and use this result to prompt the user for input.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J60
Exam Name: HP (Designing HP SMB Storage Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Which HP StoreVirtual feature is unique to the P4900 Storage System?
A. 8Gb FC node connectivity
B. support for Network RAID 5 only
C. SmartSSD Wear Gauge in CMC
D. support for hardware RAID 10
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer is a medium-sized insurance company. They have decided to build a redundant
vSphere 5.1infrastructure cluster with HP BladeSystem. As their consultant, you propose redundant
HP BladeSystemc7000 enclosures, Flex Fabric Interconnect modules, and four HP ProLiant BL660c
Gen8 Servers, with twodual port Flex-Fabric LOMs in a vSphere ESX 5.1 HA cluster.
Which components provide direct-attached storage for the virtual servers? (Select three.)
A. HP SmartArray P711m Controller
B. HP MSA P2000 G3 Combo
C. HP SmartArray P721m Controller
D. HP D6000 Disk Enclosures
E. HP 3 Gb/s SAS BL Switch
F. HP 6 Gb/s SAS BL Switch
Answer: C,D,F

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Explanation:
Up to six D6000 storage devices can be supported off a single BladeSystem enclosure for up to 1260
TB of capacity. End-to-end 6 Gb/s SAS connectivity enables a high performance storage solution
using an HP Smart Array P721m controller, 6 Gb/s SAS BL switches, and the D6000. 6 Gb/s host
connectivity enables higher performance, eases configuration/deployment and broadens supported
features of an D6000 using HP Smart Array P721m controller and 6 Gb/s SAS BL switches.

NO.3 An industry-leading insurance company in the UK has decided to build a redundant vSphere
5.1 infrastructurecluster with an HP BladeSystem and HP 3PAR StoreServ storage platform.
As their consultant, you proposeredundant HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures, FlexFabric
Interconnect modules, and four HP ProLiantBL660c Gen8 Servers, with two dual port Flex-Fabric
LOMs in a vSphere ESX5.1 HA cluster.
The supportdepartment needs to decrease the time of infrastructure management.
Which HP product provides hardware-level management for their HP server and storage solution?
A. HP System Insight Manager
B. Onboard Administrator
C. Integrated Lights Out
D. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which features would lead you to position an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 as a replacement for an
existing HP8100 Enterprise Virtual Array? (Select two.)
A. thin provisioning
B. seamless data migration
C. compatible replication protocol
D. faster disk spindle speeds
E. similar feature set
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which statements are true when zoning an HP MSA P2000 G3 FC array into a fabric? (Select
two.)
A. The array can be in multiple operating system zones.
B. Overlapping storage port zones may be configured
C. Zoning is required for all operating systems that access the array.
D. Zoning is not required for a single operating system.
E. The array required port-based zoning to be configured.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 A consultant develops a storage concept for an SMB customer. To prepare the CxO
presentation, theconsultant must identify business and technical challenges. Which challenges
should be presented during ameeting with the CEO? (Select two.)
A. Data is not protected at the sufficient level.
B. Rack space is not used efficiently.
C. Cost of information is not defined.
D. Operational expenditures (OPEX) nave to be reduced.
E. Server provisioning takes too much time.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 When designing a solution, what defines the maximum tolerable amount of data loss from an
IT service due toa major incident?
A. SLO
B. RTO
C. RPO
D. SLA
Answer: C

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NO.8 A medium-sized manufacturing company decides to build a redundant vSphere 5.1
Infrastructure cluster withHP BladeSystem. As their consultant, you propose redundant HP
BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures for theirlocal and remote sites. The storage solution you propose is
an HP StoreVirtual 4000 with remote replication.
To stay within the budget, you decide to use the HP StoreVirtual VSA at the remote site.
Which feature of the VSA must you consider for future growth?
A. maximum 3 VSAs per site
B. maximum one LAN adapter per VSA
C. maximum one VSA per host
D. maximum 10 TB per VSA
Answer: D

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Exam Code: IIA-CCSA
Exam Name: IIA (Certification in Control Self-Assessment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 270 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-27

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NO.1 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal audit can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself
assessment.
B. controlling can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself assessment.
C. Internal audit can focus on resource and budgetary produced by control-self assessment.
D. Internal audit can focus on better risk assessment produced by control-self assessment.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT the purpose of an organization that uses self-assessment to
have a formal, documented process that allows management and work teams to participate in a
structured manner?
A. Identifying risk factors and significant exposures.
B. Accessing the control processes that do not mitigate or manage those risks.
C. Developing action plans to reduce risks to acceptable levels.
D. Determining the likelihood of, or assisting in, the achievement of business objectives.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The purpose of Control self-assessment is:
A. to make analysis through interviews
B. to find report issued by auditors
C. through which internal control effectiveness is examined and assessed
D. to focus on policies and procedures that are strategy compliance
Answer: C

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NO.4 When internal auditors establishes trust and thus provides the basis for reliance on their
judgment, this refers to:
A. Veracity
B. Authenticity
C. Integrity
D. Accuracy
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal auditing is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add
value and improve an organization's operations.
B. Take guidelines to analyst conflicts of internal auditing.
C. Required orientation and continuing education regarding audits.
D. Assets are safeguards for internal audits.
Answer: A

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NO.6 In traditional approach, objectives used were of management's and in control selfassessment
approach it is of work teams'.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is Correct?
A. In traditional approach, reporting was done by work teams and in control selfassessment
approach it is done by auditors.
B. In traditional approach, reporting was done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach
it is done by work teams.
C. In traditional approach, setting business objectives were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by management.
D. In traditional approach, accessing risks were done by auditors and in control selfassessment
approach it is also done by auditors.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A methodology that can be used by managers and internal auditors to assess the adequacy of
an organization's risk management and control processes is called:
A. Control self-assessment
B. Control certifications
C. Managerial control
D. Risk control
Answer: A

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NO.9 Competency refers to:
A. External auditors apply the knowledge, skills and experience needed in the performance of
internal auditing services.
B. Internal auditors apply the knowledge, skills and experience needed in the performance of
internal auditing services.
C. Reduce or prevent manufacturing defects
D. Provide information about the process capability and maturity with standards.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Internal auditors have which following four principles to uphold and apply.
A. Integrity, Objectivity, Control and Confidentiality
B. Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality and Competency
C. Reliability, Objectivity, Timeliness and Competency
D. Integrity, Objectivity, Discretion and Expertise
Answer: B

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NO.11 The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructures of an organization are subject to greater
monitoring and continuous improvements due to:
A. Accountability for control
B. Measuring methodology
C. Evaluation methodology
D. Self-assessment methodology
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is NOT the rule of integrity?
A. Perform duty with honesty and responsibility.
B. Observe law and make disclosures expected by law.
C. Knowingly engage in acts that are discreditable to the organization.
D. Respect to and contribute to the legitimate objectives of the organization.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Principles relevant to profession of internal auditing and rules of conduct that describe their
behaviors are the components of:
A. Auditing Reviews
B. Internal Auditing Profession
C. Auditing Standards
D. Institute of Internal Auditors
Answer: D

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NO.14 In traditional approach, evaluating risks and controls were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by work teams.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.15 To disclose all material facts known to internal auditors that if not disclosed, may distort the
reporting of activities under review, this one of the rules of:
A. Objectivity
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

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