2014年6月25日星期三

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NO.1 What is meant by 'sampling'?
A. The amount of Rendering Layers to be calculated in an image
B. The amount of times the software will examine different areas of a pixel
C. The number of photons that get emitted into the scene.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 What effect does the Break Tangent action have on a selected animation tangent?
A. Allows manipulation of the in and out tangent handles individually so you can edit the curve
segment entering or exiting the key without affecting its opposite handle.
B. Causes the manipulation of an in or out tangent handle to affect its opposite handle equally
C. Specifies that when you move a tangent, only its angle can be changed.
D. Specifies that when you move a tangent its angle and weight can be changed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What modes can you work in when modeling with Subdivision surfaces?
A. Polygon mode and NURBS mode
B. Standard mode and Polygon mode.
C. Standard mode and Coarser mode.
D. NURBS mode and Component mode.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which file format lets you exchange complex data between Maya and other software while
preserving the data's overall behavior?
A. OBJ
B. FBX
C. DXF
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 How is a Soft Body different from a Rigid Body?
A. Afield can't be connected to Soft Body particles.
B. Rigid Bodies can't be affected by a Dynamic constraint.
C. A Soft Body can be keyframed using the Set Active Key command.
D. Rigid Bodies don't deform.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following BEST describes the Blend Shape deformer?
The Blend Shape deformer...
A. creates a joint system based on the topology of the surface
B. allows you use several target shapes to help reshape another piece of geometry.
C. is a special object you use to control the deformation effects of rigid skinning.
D. lets you manually sculpt NURBS, polygons, or Subdivision surfaces quickly with the stroke of a
brush
Answer: B

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NO.7 What does the nConstraint Membership Tool for nCloth allows users to do?
A. Add vertices to a selected dynamic constraint
B. Remove vertices from a selected dynamic constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Neither of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which is the correct method to make the current transformations on the selected object be
the object's zero position
A. Edit>Delete option
B. Modify>Freeze Transformations option.
C. Modify>Delete Attribute Transformations option.
D. Skeleton>OrientJoint>Freeze Transformations option
Answer: B

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NO.1 Performing a skills gap analysis and identifying appropriate salary levels are preparatory requirements
for what?
A. Service Desk recruitment
B. Service Catalogue definition
C. Service Level Agreement negotiation
D. Skills Matrix creation
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the purpose of a Service Desk vision statement?
A. To assist staff in achieving their dream goals in their future careers
B. To help management see where the Service Desk is going strategically
C. To keep the Service Desk in the forefront of user minds
D. To ensure that all staff understand the vision and consistently work towards it
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of these options is NOT likely to be a role of the Service Desk?
A. To balance support expenses to keep IT support performing at the optimum levels of quality and cost
effectiveness
B. To integrate support goals with business goals
C. To provide individual and personal IT support to each business user
D. To report on service breaches and their reasons
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of these options best describes the value of adopting a resource-planning model?
A. It helps even out the handling of calls across the day or shift
B. It quantifies the staffing required to meet SLA and business needs
C. It provides a sound recruitment base for consistent staffing
D. It boosts staff retention
Answer: B

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NO.5 You need to get a project and its budget approved by your board, which of these options would be the
most appropriate action to take?
A. Ensure that all stakeholders are sent regular operational reports about the project
B. Organise a conference for board members to discuss the project in detail
C. Build a business-based project plan to present to senior management
D. Write a full report on your opinion of the project and those responsible
Answer: C

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NO.6 You intend to implement some far-reaching changes to the way in which your Service Desk currently
operates, but to do so you need the support of other teams within IT. Which action should you undertake
to gain this support?
A. Give a presentation to the board of directors to guarantee their support
B. Make time to develop a social relationship with your manager
C. Demonstrate your understanding of any concerns others may have
D. Begin by creating a powerfully-worded vision statement
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your IT director has told you that your team must follow best practice. What is a major benefit of so
doing?
A. Customers and employees will feel more satisfied with the service provided by your team
B. Senior management meetings will not dwell on the failings of your team
C. The speed of resolution becomes the sole focus of everyones attention
D. Team members are less likely to be involved in cross-department projects
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the key outcome of keeping commitments to users, team members and organisations?
A. It boosts credibility, trust and customer satisfaction
B. It boosts the teams importance and status
C. It enhances the problem-solving capability of the team
D. It demonstrates dedication to continued service improvement
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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NO.2 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.3 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.4 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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NO.5 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.7 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Telecommunications is:
A. The use of a telephone or similar equipment for voice communication.
B. The practice of transporting a signal, often through a switch, typically using voice
communications technology.
C. Communications at a distance.
D. The designing of a telephone network calling area.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Direct Inward Dialing uses:
A. Key system lines.
B. Loop start functionality.
C. Digital key systems.
D. Trunks.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Call appearance buttons allow the management of multiple:
A. Calls.
B. Station sets.
C. Display colors.
D. Analog modems
Answer: B

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NO.4 DC signaling is used by analog sets for:
A. In-band signaling.
B. Supervisory signaling.
C. Ringing.
D. Touchtone signaling
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following technologies are changing our view of telecommunications?
A. Transistor, computers, and fiber optics
B. Satellite and submarine technology
C. Computers and communications
D. Cell and PCS phones, and the Web browser
Answer: D

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NO.6 A few lines serve multiple users using a:
A. PBX.
B. CO switch.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Key system.
Answer: D

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NO.7 If you want to track the cost of long distance calls, the feature you use is called:
A. SMDR
B. CAR
C. LLCR
D. LCR
Answer: A

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NO.8 Cellular subscribers represent:
A. Only 5 percent of the total voice users.
B. The largest growth in absolute numbers over the last decade.
C. A declining segment of the telecommunications market.
D. The most exciting area of Internet access innovation.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Advanced Certificate in Purchasing and Supply
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply
A10
Senior Assessor's Report
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The senior assessor??s report is written in order to provide candidates with feedback relating to
the examination. It is designed as a tool for candidates ?¡ìC both those who have sat the
examination and those who wish to use as part of their revision for future examinations.
Candidates are advised to refer to the Examination Techniques Guide (see the following link
http://www.cips.org/documents/ExaminationtechniquesguideFeb07.pdf) as well as this senior
assessor??s report.
The senior assessor??s report aims to provide the following information:
* An indication of how to approach the examination question
* An indication of the points the answer should include and how marks are allocated
* An indication of candidate performance for the examination question
APPENDIX
A syllabus matrix for the examination is included as an appendix. It highlights the learning
objectives of the syllabus unit content that each question is testing.
The unit content guides are available to download at the following link:
http://www.cips.org/studyqualify/cipsqualifications/syllabuses/
ADDITIONAL SOURCES OF INFORMATION
The Supply Management magazine is a useful source of information and candidates are advised
to include it in their reading during their study. Please see the following link to the Supply
Management website http://www.supplymanagement.com/
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Question 11
Answer should identify FIVE of the following key points (1 mark was allocated for each correct
point) - initial briefing regarding performance areas, identification of what the organisation requires
from the employee, highlighting of any problems, is performance on track?, feedback during the
meeting, can the employer provide any assistance and have any training needs been identified.
The qualities of responses to this question were quite high and many candidates scored a good
level of marks.
Question 12
Candidates were required to LIST any FIVE of the following - increased leverage, ease of control
of fewer suppliers, greater opportunities of negotiation, increased joint development potential,
value adding initiatives may be explored, more use of supplier agreements, less transactional
activity, more use of strategic procurement.
The majority of candidates answered this question very well, with strong responses giving four or
five correct points. Weaker answers gave incorrect examples of the benefits of reducing the total
number of suppliers.
Question 13
Candidates were required to explain TWO ways in which purchasers could achieve continuous
professional development. Candidates should recognise that 2 ? marks are available for the
explanation of each 'way'. This breaks down as 1 mark available for identification of each method
with up to a further 1? marks available for the explanation of how the method used would benefit
the purchaser (or their employer). Areas that answers could include were: own study, attendance
at professional association meetings, attendance on courses/distance learning, formal training,
site visits, job rotation, or academic achievement.
The overall approach to this question could have been better. This is a key section within the
learning outcomes of this unit and many candidates performed poorly and identified areas that
were irrelevant to the context of the question. A few strong answers managed to correctly identify
two ways and briefly explained the value of the concept, in the context of purchaser's professional
development.
Question 14
Part (a) asked for THREE correctly titled key performance indicators (KPIs), for example, stockturns,
service levels, stock damage, stock accuracy, accuracy of pick rates (1 mark for each
appropriate KPI, up to 3 marks). Part (b) required candidates to explain how the use of KPIs can
improve the management of stock.
Many candidates gave incorrect KPIs for part (a), or failed to list insufficient KPIs. Many poor
answers focused on efficiency and effectiveness, rather than actually identify a KPI measure.
Following on from this part (b) was poorly answered as a result of the candidate failing to
understand the context of the question. This is a key part of the unit content and it is important that
candidates address this syllabus topic.
Question 15
Benchmarking is a key concept and allows buyers to assess the suitability or performance of a
supplier when compared to a known standard.
Part (a) required candidates to describe the purpose of supplier benchmarking. Benchmarking
provides information which may be used to select the correct supplier or motivate a potential
supplier to improve its products or overall performance.
Part (b) required candidates to list two problems that can be encountered with benchmarking.
There were many weak answers to this question and this may suggest a knowledge gap in the
candidates who sat this paper. Many responses gave a poor or inappropriate response to part (a)
and incorrect examples for part (b). Some answers gained marks for part (b) but were awarded no
marks for an incorrect answer to part (a).
Question 16
Candidates were required to explain TWO measurements that contribute to a simple vendor
measurement system. Examples that could have been explained are: quality ?¡ìC quantity of
acceptable deliveries as a percentage, deliveries ?¡ìC percentage of accurate on-time deliveries,
after sales service ?¡ìC response time set against an agreed target
Many candidates scored highly on this question by correctly identifying two measures and then
giving an appropriate explanation. A few candidates gave inappropriate answers or failed to
adequately explain what the measure was.
Topic 4, E
E

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
Q16. Identify FIVE areas that should be covered when appraising the buyer's performance.
Topic 1, D
D

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NO.3 Topic 1, D
D
1. CORRECT TEXT
Q11. Identify the FIVE stages that should be followed to ensure an effective staff appraisal.
Topic 2, F
F

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NO.4 Q6. Which of the following tools of analysis can be used to classify stock?
A. Value chain analysis
B. ABC analysis
C. SMART analysis
D. Quantum analysis
Topic 1, D
D
NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. An organisation wishes to review its procurement processes to try and achieve
operational benefits.
You have been asked by the senior materials manager to advise on how the
process should proceed, as follows:
(a) List THREE key tasks where buyers' performance is directly linked to the
objectives of supply management.
(b) For each of the three key tasks, give an example of how the purchaser??s
performance could be measured.
(c) Explain how a review of these key tasks could benefit an organisation.
Topic 5, B
B
9.
Q2. Which of the following is Pareto's Law?
A. The law of supply and demand
B. The law of vendor rating
C. The 80/20 rule
D. The 90/30 rule
10.
Q3. Which one of the following is a recognised measure of financial performance?
A. Stock exchange viability test
B. CLIP performance
C. Net profit before tax
D. Sales analysis

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NO.5 THE CHARTERED INSTITUTE OF PURCHASING &SUPPLY
ADVANCED CERTIFICATE IN PURCHASING AND SUPPLY
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply Management
A10
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*SECTION B: Questions 11?¡ìC16 are worth 5 marks each. You are advised to spend
approximately 50 minutes on this section.
*SECTION C: Questions 17?¡ìC19 require full answers with examples where appropriate.
Question 17 is worth 20 marks. Questions 18 and 19 are worth 15 marks each. You are advised to
spend a minimum of half an hour on each question.
*Answers should be written in this answer booklet in the spaces provided. If you require
continuation paper you should request this from the invigilator. Your candidate number and
question number must be clearly marked on each sheet of continuation paper.
*All answers must be written in ink. Pencil should only be used where graphs/diagrams are
required. Cross out any work which you do not wish to be examined.
*Rough working must be shown, and crossed out.
*The use of silent, battery-operated, non-programmable calculators is permitted.

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. Microfast Foods is concerned about the cost of holding large quantities of stocks for its food
processing operation, in particular the issue of the high cost of perishable ingredients and
'waste'. The company has no formal procedure for tracking levels and usage of inventory
within its stores. The managing director of Microfast has asked you to advise him as follows:
a) Briefly explain to the managing director why it is important to continually review and
measure inventory levels.
b) Within the stores and warehouse environment there are THREE factors that need to be
examined ?¡ìC Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness ?¡ìC in relation to performance
measures. The managing director is unsure of the detail. Provide a brief explanation of
each in the context of this business.

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NO.7 Q3. Which one of the following performance indicators is best used to assess whether there are
slow moving stock items in a store?
A. Total number of items held
B. Average number of stock issues over a period
C. Total value of stock held
D. Average number of deliveries received
Topic 3, A
A

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NO.1 An administrator is using Update Manager 5.x to update virtual appliances in a vSphere
environment. The environment is using the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA).
What would cause the remediation to fail?
A. Updating of the appliance can only be done if the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) has
been put into Maintenance Mode.
B. Remediation must be configured on the Appliance Administration page before use.
C. Remediation of the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) with Update Manager is not
supported.
D. Remediation requires the hosts to be connected to vCenter using an IPv4 address.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Update Manager 5.0 does not support virtual machine patch baselines.If a host is connected to
vCenter Server by using an IPv6 address, you cannot scan and remediate virtual machines and
virtual appliances that run on the host.

NO.2 An administrator has recently upgraded their Update Manager infrastructure to vSphere 5.x.
Several hosts and virtual machines have not been upgraded yet.
Which vSphere component when upgraded will have the least impact to the existing environment?
A. Virtual Machine Hardware
B. ESX Hosts
C. VMFS datastores
D. VMware Tools
Answer: D

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Explanation:
VMware Tools isn't a single application but a set of drivers, services and user processes that's
installed in a guest operating system. They add a wide assortment of functionality to
VMwareinfrastructures -- everything from improving color depth and video resolution in the
vSphere Client to memory optimization.
Typically, an outdated version of VMware Tools doesn't have an immediate impact. But with every
update to vSphere, you'll likely have to update VMware Tools on every virtual machine.

NO.3 A series of Auto Deploy ESXi 5.x hosts, which utilize vSphere Standard Switches, are unable to
boot. In prior testing, all of the hosts were able to boot successfully.
Which two conditions might cause this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The Hosts are unable to connect to the SAN.
B. The TFTP server is down.
C. The DNS server is down.
D. The DHCP server is down.
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
If the TFTP server is down, ESXi will not boot because it needs TFTP to get the information. Similarly,
when DHCP is down, it will not assign the IP addresses and ESXi needs IP address to boot properly.

NO.4 What is a benefit of vCenter Linked-Mode?
A. Allows the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) to manage multiple sites
B. Pools vRAM entitlement
C. Increases vCenter security
D. Increases vCenter reliability
Answer: B

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Reference:http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere50/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.vcenterh
ost.doc_50%2FGUID-EC40636E-0DD44A17-B163-5CFBDC31666C.html

NO.5 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides
linked-clone technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-View-4-Composer-DS-EN.pdf(page 1, last
paragraph)

NO.6 What are the three service offerings provided by a VMware-powered public cloud? (Choose
three.)
A. Committed
B. Transient
C. Dedicated
D. Highly Elastic
E. Basic
Answer: A,C,E

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/cloud/VMware-ServiceDef-Public-Cloud-11Q1-White-
Paper.pdf(page 6, see service offerings)

NO.7 What virtual machine action listed below can be performed on a template?
A. Power on
B. Clone
C. Edit Settings
D. Migrate
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator is working to update the hosts and virtual machines in a vSphere 5.x
deployment using Update Manager Baselines.
Other than host patches, which three items require a separate procedure or process to update?
(Choose three.)
A. Operating system patches
B. Virtual Appliance updates
C. Virtual Machine Virtual Hardware upgrades
D. VMware Tools on machines without VMware Tools already installed
E. Application patches within the virtual machine
Answer: A,D,E

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Explanation:
Operating system patches are related to operating system so they need a separate procedure
altogether. Same is the case with VMware tools and applications patches because applications are
stand alone pieces of code that need separate procedure to apply a patch.

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Exam Code: VCPC550
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NO.1 Which VLAN configuration requires the a switch port to be configured as an access port?
A. Private VLAN
B. External Switch Tagging
C. Virtual Guest Tagging
D. Virtual Switch Tagging
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which workflow should the administrator follow to create a High Availability (HA) cluster?
A. Select a datacenter, create a cluster in the datacenter, add resources to the cluster, enable HA,
and configure HA-specific settings
B. Select a resource pool, create an HA Cluster in the resource pool, add resources to the cluster,
configure HA-specific settings, and enable HA
C. Select a datacenter, create an HA Cluster, add resources to the cluster, configure HA-specific
settings, and enable HA
D. Select a resource pool, create a cluster in the pool, add resources to the cluster, enable HA, and
configure HA-specific settings
Answer: A

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NO.3 What should an administrator do to configure multi-pathing using software iSCSI?
A. Bind the VMkernel ports to the software iSCSI initiator
B. Configure Zoning between the hosts and SAN switches
C. Configure NIC teaming on the associated uplinks
D. Ensure jumbo frames are enabled end-to-end
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer needs to create a virtual machine that can be migrated across multiple vSphere
clusters. The virtual machine has an application that must detect the physical characteristics of the
storage device.
Which type of virtual disk can be added to the virtual machine to meet these requirements?
A. A virtual disk on a VMFS datastore
B. A raw device mapped disk in virtual compatibility mode
C. A raw device mapped disk in physical compatibility mode
D. A virtual disk on an NFS datastore
Answer: C

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NO.5 During an upgrade, the ESXi 5.x installer finds an existing version of ESXi and a VMFS3 volume.
No virtual machines exist on the host or VMFS3 volume. The requirement is to upgrade to VMFS5.
Which option should be chosen to meet this requirement?
A. Upgrade ESXi and preserve the VMFS datastore
B. Install ESXi and preserve the VMFS datastore
C. Install ESXi and overwrite the VMFS datastore
D. Upgrade ESXi and overwrite the VMFS datastore
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two statements are true regarding a new vSphere deployment that is using software
FCoE boot from SAN? (Choose two.)
A. Multi-pathing options must be configured by the vmkernel after boot.
B. The adapter must support iBFT or UEFI.
C. The adapter must support FBFT or FBPT.
D. Multi-pathing options must be configured in the Boot ROM.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 An administrator is unable to login to vCenter Server when using the vSphere Web Client. The
administrator successfully accessed vCenter Server using the client earlier the same day.
What is the most appropriate first step the administrator should take to resolve this issue?
A. Verify the web browser being used has Adobe Flash plugin version 11.5 or later
B. Verify the vCenter Single Sign-On service is running on the vCenter Server
C. Verify the vSphere Web Server service is running on the vCenter Server
D. Verify the administrator has permissions configured in vCenter Server
Answer: B

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NO.8 During the installation of ESXi, a vmkernel interface can be configured with what capabilities?
A. Management traffic
B. Management traffic and vMotion
C. Management traffic, vMotion, and Fault Tolerance logging
D. Management traffic, vMotion, Fault Tolerance logging, and IP storage
Answer: A

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