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Exam Code: P3OF
Exam Name: Portfolio, Programme and Project Offices® Foundation
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Exam Code: CLOUDF
Exam Name: EXIN Cloud Computing Foundation
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NO.1 What is currently the most common network topology?
A. Hybrid
B. Point-to-point
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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NO.2 Why may Service levels vary for Hybrid Clouds?
A. Hybrid Clouds are constantly shifting from Public to Private Clouds.
B. Hybrid Clouds are less reliable than Public Clouds.
C. Hybrid Clouds are less reliable than Private Clouds.
D. SLAs of Hybrid Clouds contain a mix of Public and Private Cloud SLAs.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Why does a VPN offer more mobility to employees?
A. It allows employees to work from locations other than their office.
B. It offers more security at home than at the office.
C. It offers a higher network speed at home than at the office.
D. It does not require a network connection.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the main challenge for providers as moving to the Cloud causes changes in relation
to their customers?
A. Cloud providers may be reluctant to ask for more money to deliver their products and services.
B. Cloud providers need to certify their solutions.
C. Providers will have to understand their customers business and redefine SLA's for Cloud
environments.
D. Products are not delivered on premise but through the Cloud.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?
A. because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B. because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C. because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D. because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor
Answer: B

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NO.6 How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?
A. by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B. by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C. by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D. by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider
Answer: A

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NO.7 Capacity management is a process to ensure IT infrastructure is used efficiently and that it is
provided at the right time and price in the needed volumes.
Which ISO/IEC 20000 process group does Capacity management belong to?
A. Control processes
B. Resolution processes
C. Relationship processes
D. Service delivery processes
Answer: D

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NO.8 Restricting access to systems/applications based on time is part of which Triple-A security
cornerstone?
A. Accounting
B. Application
C. Authentication
D. Authorization
Answer: D

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NO.1 When you are using stock images in your Web site, a royalty-free license allows you to:
A. Use the images without paying a fee for each use.
B. Resell or transfer the images without paying a fee.
C. Use the images without purchasing a license.
D. Assumecopyrightof the images.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A user is submitting data from a form on your Web page to a database using a CCI script.
Which attribute of the form field elements organizes the user's information into name=value
pairs?
A. Name
B. Form
C. Value
D. Method
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which <1mg> tag attribute is required in order for HTML5 documents to validate without
error?
A. id
B. alt
C. name
D. title
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are modifying an existing Web page that needs to validate as HTML5 code. To create a
rectangular hot-spot in an image map that links to www.xyz.com, which code would you nest inside
the <map> </map> container tags?
A. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz"
B. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
C. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
D. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href=http://www.xyz.com />
Answer: C

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NO.5 Katie developed her corporation's intra net site using proprietary HTML language extensions
based on the company's current browser. The company has recently updated its systems toinclude
the use of a new browser. Now the intra net site that Katie developed no longer renders its content
consistently. What should Katie do to ensure that this site's content renders consistently regardless
of the browser used?
A. Revise the site to include workarounds and hacks for the new browser.
B. Revise the site's markup language in only those areas that are not rendering properly.
C. Update the site using a single language standard consistently, such as HTML5 or XHTML.
D. Update the site using the proprietary language extensions required by the new browser's
rendering engine.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Marion is formatting a simple Web page. She has been asked to create headings before the
first and third paragraphs.
To accomplish this most efficiently, which type of HTML
elements should Marion use?
A. Text-level elements
B. Block quote elements
C. Fixed-width font elements
D. Paragraph-level elements
Answer: D

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NO.7 Consider the following HTML5 code:
The code does not validate as HTML5. Why?
A. The <article> tag is missing.
B. The <meta> tag and its attributes are missing.
C. The <blockquote> tag should be used outside the <p> tags.
D. The !DOCTYPEdeclaration is missing a reference to the Document Type Definition (DTD).
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which HTML validator is best for a final check before a new Web site is published?
A. GUI HTML editor's validator
B. Your browser's add-on validator
C. W3C validator at http://validator.w3.org
D. W3C validator at http://jigsaw.w3.org/css-validator/
Answer: C

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part4
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills
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NO.1 Which of the following is not one of the advantages of self-managed teams?
A. Motivation is improved because decision making is decentralized.
B. Improved processes of production if the teams are supported properly.
C. Managerial acceptance by tradition-oriented managers.
D. Improved communication because all members understand the team's activities better.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Managerial resistance is often the primary obstacle of self-managed teams. Organizational change is
difficult and tradition-oriented managers tend to regard self-managed teams as a threat to their
status.

NO.2 The organizational culture may encourage politics by creating unreasonable obstacles to
group and individual advancement. Which type of political tactic involves taking credit for another
person's work?
A. Loyalty cliques.
B. Destructive competition.
C. Empire building.
D. Posturing.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Posturing is an attempt to make a good impression, for example, by taking credit for others' work or
seeking to stay one jump ahead of a rival.

NO.3 Which of the following factors is least typical of an industry that faces intense competitive
rivalry?
A. Price-cutting.
B. Large advertising budgets.
C. Frequent introduction of new products.
D. A high threat of substitutes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A high threat of substitutes reduces the attractiveness of an industry. It tends to increase the price
elasticity of demand and therefore limits price increases and profit margins. If other factors are
constant, fewer entrants result in less intense competition.

NO.4 A small engineering consulting firm accepts special projects from customers in a variety of
fields. Its choice of an organic organizational design was most likely based on its:
A. Lack of concern for self-fulfillment of employees.
B. Preference for formal communication.
C. Adoption of directive leadership style.
D. Participative decision making processes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The organic structure is best suited to a company that emphasizes operational efficiency less than
the flexibility needed to respond quickly to changes in its environment and the creativity to find
solutions to new problems. Decision making in this context tends to rely on input from many
sources and requires multidirectional communication. Hence, a horizontal or flat structure typified
by project or matrix management will be appropriate.

NO.5 Which of the following is false with regard to email policies?
A. Employees may use informal writing because email is often informal in nature.
B. Employees should understand that the organization has a legal right to monitor the employees'
use of the email system.
C. Filters should be used to protect against spam.
D. Emails should be concisely written.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The principles of good writing still apply to emails. Therefore, emails should be written like any
other formal communication within the organization.

NO.6 With the shift in some countries' economies toward service industries, a new form of
organization has developed. This organization structure is referred to as the professional
bureaucracy. While this structure resembles the machine bureaucracy which relies on standardized
work processes) in several respects, it is different in one key aspect. This significant difference is that
in a professional bureaucracy:
A. Senior management has had to give up a substantial amount of control.
B. Tasks are accomplished with a high degree of efficiency.
C. There is strict adherence to rules.
D. There is a tendency for subunit conflicts to develop.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A professional bureaucracy e.g., a university or library) is a complex and formal but decentralized
organization in which highly trained specialists have great autonomy. The jobs performed by these
professionals require years of education and training. By their nature, such jobs can be performed
effectively only if the employees are afforded substantial autonomy.

NO.7 According to research on the international contingency model of leadership, which path-goal
leadership style is most likely to be accepted around the world as culturally appropriate?
A. Directive.
B. Participative.
C. Supportive.
D. Achievement-oriented.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A participative style entails consultation with employees and serious attention to their ideas. The
participative style, although not always the best, is the most widely accepted internationally. Every
country surveyed found it to be culturally acceptable.

NO.8 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.

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Exam Name: Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.3
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NO.1 An Aruba Controller is configured with VLAN 1,5, 200, and 4095. All VLANs have IP addresses
assigned. Which is the default management VLAN on the Aruba controller?
A. VLAN 5
B. VLAN 1
C. VLAN 200
D. None, it must be defined
E. VLAN 4095
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which command will show all client association history?
A. Aruba-6000# show mobile trail current (ip address)
B. Aruba-6000# show ip mobile trail (ip address)
C. Aruba-6000# show ap client status (mac address)
D. Aruba-6000# show current client ip (ip address)
E. Aruba-6000# show client ip (ip address) mobility
Answer: B

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NO.3 An AP was configured and assigned to an AP group then powered off for over a week. When
the AP is redeployed, what previous configuration will it retain?
A. It's AP name and AP Group
B. It's Serial Number
C. The controller's IP address
D. After a few days all configurations are lost
E. The controller IP address and the AP Group
Answer: A

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NO.4 What settings need to be changed on a factory default AP in order for it to use ADP to discover
the Aruba Controller?
A. DNS of the controller
B. Static route
C. AP group
D. enable multicast
E. no changes needed
Answer: E

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NO.5 How many Aruba controllers can be added to a single mobility domain?
A. 64 controllers of any type
B. 128 controllers supporting 2000 users
C. 256 controllers with no more than 1024 subnets
D. Controllers supporting up to 6000 AP's
E. There is no controller limit
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which command, when executed on a master controller, will show the APs connected to all
controllers?
A. show stm connectivity
B. show ap active
C. show ap database
D. show ap bss-table
E. show ap controller-lms
Answer: C

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NO.7 When configuring ports in the Controller wizard, which of the following are NOT configuration
options? (Choose two)
A. Inter-VLAN routing
B. Speed
C. Trusted
D. LACP
E. Trunk
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
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A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. SSH
E. GRE
Answer: B

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NO.1 SAP Solution Manager 4.0 can use an SLD (System Landscape Directory). Which statements are
true for the purpose of the SLD?
A. SLD is only available with the shipment of SAP NetWeaver Process Integration (PI).
B. SLD is the landscape-wide information provider for system landscape data and acts as a
foundation of many SAP applications.
C. SLD is a Java application. Therefore, ABAP applications cannot make use of the information
provided by the SLD.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to patch the kernel of an AS ABAP+Java-based (dual stack) SAP system.
Into which of the following do you put the new kernel executables?
A. The ABAP kernel directory
B. The Work directory
C. The "KERNEL_NEW" directory
D. The transport directory, subdirectory "Data"
Answer: A

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NO.3 You would like to install an SAP ECC system. Which of the following components can be
installed in a separate installation procedure? (Choose two)
A. The central instance
B. The database instance
C. An Internet Communication Manager
D. The standalone message server
Answer: A,B

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6. What happens when an Oracle database shuts down? (Choose two)
A. When using the IMMEDIATE option, open transactions are rolled back before the database is shut
down.
B. When using the IMMEDIATE option, an instance recovery is required at the next database startup.
C. When using the NORMAL option, the database system disconnects all users before shutting down
the database.
D. When using the ABORT option, the SAP system is shut down as well.
E. When using the IMMEDIATE option, the database system writes a checkpoint before shutting
down the database.
Answer: A,E

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7. An SAP system's Oracle database has four online redo logs, also known as database
transaction logs. Each online redo log has a mirrored copy.
What is the effect of a log file switch?
A. The ARCH process is triggered to write the current online redo log to its mirrored copy. The next
online redo log is opened for writing.
B. The database switches between writing to the original redo log files and the mirrored redo log
files.
C. The current online redo log is closed and the next online redo log is opened for writing. The ARCH
process is triggered to begin backing up the recently closed redo log.
D. The database alternates between writing to the online and offline redo log files.
Answer: C

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8. You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system with several instances.
Where are enqueue locks stored that are managed by the AS ABAP system?
A. In the shared memory of each instance
B. In the database of the SAP system
C. In the shared memory of the instance where the enqueue work process is running
D. In the shared memory of the ABAP message server
Answer: C

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9. Which settings are necessary for activating the integrated ITS?
A. Set the profile parameter rdisp/optimize_web_app to 1.
B. Set the profile parameter itsp/enable to 1.
C. Configure the HTML cache of the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
D. You need to deploy the necessary HTML templates on the operating system level.
Answer: B

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10. Which of the following statements regarding the transaction RZ10 are true?
(Choose two.)
A. When you use the save button in RZ10 and activate the profile, it will be written immediately to
the operating system level.
B. The default profile cannot be maintained using transaction RZ10.
C. The maintained parameters will take effect immediately after the profile is activated in the RZ10.
D. You can compare the profile file on the operating system with the profile in the database.
Answer: A,D

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11. Which of the following does not use SAP NetWeaver?
A. SAP ERP
B. SAP Business All-In-One
C. SAP CRM
D. SAP Business One
Answer: D

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12. The software component SAP ECC 6.0 runs on which of the following?
A. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.00
B. SAP Basis 4.6D
C. SAP Web Application Server 6.40
D. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.10
Answer: A

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13. For UNDO tablespaces, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The UNDO tablespace MUST be a dictionary managed tablespace.
B. Undo segments are overwritten first after undo retention time.
C. To avoid a tablespace overflow, the UNDO tablespace can be set to be autoextensible.
D. Transformation of rollback- to undo tablespace can be performed with BRSPACE in a one-step
procedure.
E. Storage parameters of all undo segments should be equal.
Answer: B,C

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14. The Oracle database offers different types of indexes.
Which of the following are valid index types? (Choose two)
A. Bitmap index
B. Dictionary index
C. Unique master index
D. Balanced tree (B*tree) index
Answer: A,D

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15. For which of the following do you need to install and configure SAProuter? (Choose two)
A. EarlyWatch Service session done remotely by an SAP Support employee
B. Connection to https://scn.sap.com
C. Remote Consulting from SAP
D. Connection to https://service.sap.com
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Where can you find details on the memory consumption of the integrated ITS?
A. Using the ICF service /sap/moni/its/mem
B. In the SAP system, using transaction/report SITSPMON
C. On operating system level, using the command "its -mem"
D. In the SAP system, using transaction SMICM
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding post-installation activities for SAP ECC 6.0 are
true?
(Choose two.)
A. The installation check verifies the completeness of the installation.
B. Additional space in the database is needed to generate ABAP loads of programs, function
modules, and classes; using transaction SGEN.
C. The newest Support package level is available with the SAP ECC 6.0 installation. Only the SAP
executables (kernel) and the database must be patched after the installation.
D. SAP recommends creating the first client after the installation using client copy profile SAP_CUST.
The source client for the client copy should be client 066.
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 Which of the following is a function of deadline monitoring (transaction IP30)?
A. Generate a Logistics Information System (LIS) report for scheduled maintenance items within a
specific period.
B. Convert maintenance notifications into maintenance orders within a specific period.
C. Convert maintenance calls into call objects within a specific period.
D. Generate a Logistics Information System (LIS) report for all overdue maintenance calls.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following are prerequisites for business completion?(Choose two)
A. The order must have actual costs.
B. The order must be fully settled.
C. The balance of the order must be zero.
D. The order must have planned costs.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 When the user creates a maintenance plan for a call object (order), which value in the
planning data determines the order type?
A. Priority
B. Maintenance activity type
C. Maintenance planner group
D. Main work center
Answer: C

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NO.4 A maintenance plan has a completion requirement. The plan contains five maintenance
items that produce five notifications.
Which system status must each notification have before the maintenance call is completed and the
next maintenance call can be generated?
A. REL (Released)
B. ATCO (All Tasks Completed)
C. TECO (Technically Completed)
D. NOCO (Notification Completed)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following Customizing settings is required to assign a notification to a
maintenance order operation?
A. Assignment of operations to all object list entries active
B. Assignment of order type to notification type
C. Maintain indicator for notification data on order header
D. Create default value profiles for general order data
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following always produces up-to-the-minute costing information for
maintenance orders?
A. A standard analysis from the Plant Maintenance Information System (PMIS)
B. A standard query in SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
C. A maintenance order list
D. A shift report based on shift notes
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which task list can have both external and internal number assignment for the task list group
number?
A. Bill of material task list
B. Equipment task list
C. General task list
D. Functional location task list
Answer: C

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NO.8 What information does the value category provide in the maintenance order?
A. The costs details for individual technical objects
B. The costs by work center
C. The material costs by valuation category
D. A summary of costs for multiple cost elements
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 4 - High?
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B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statement is true regarding SmartEvent Intro? SmartEvent Intro:
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B. has been discontinued
C. is free, and therefore requires no license
D. only view events from one blade
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 3 - Medium?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can bypass security or hide identities
Answer: C

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D. The Security Administrator
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B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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C. YouTube
Answer: A

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B. Potentially not business related
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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