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Exam Code: A2010-598
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Administration
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Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Transformation Extender V8.4 Application Development
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NO.1 Which section in the Administration Center shows if the file system where the database is
installed has enough space, and that the last backup completed successfully?
A.Reporting
B.Health Monitor
C.Server Maintenance
D.Enterprise Management
Answer: B

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NO.2 An IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) storage agent has frequent connection problems
with the TSM client.Which file should be checked?
A.activity log
B.dsmerror.log
C.dsmsched.log
D.dsmstagent.log
Answer: B

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NO.3 If a client system is memory constrained which parameter can be set to improve
performance of
incremental backup?
A.Efficient backup No
B.Memoryefficientbackup No
C.Memoryefficientbackup yes
D.Efficientbackup diskcachemethod
Answer: C

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NO.4 How can the activity log for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 messages be searched from the
client fornode EPED associated with Session 4?
A.Query actiog orig = ( NODE: 4o
B.Query actiog search = ( FRED: 4
C.Query actiog search = ( SESSI ON: 4
D.Query actiog session = ( CLI ENT: 4
Answer: C

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NO.5 By default, the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) password expiration for an
administrator or
client node is how many days?
A.30
B.45
C.60
D.90
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which concept applies to client-side data deduplication?
A.The client creates a journal file to track redundant files.
B.The client compares the server and client activity log files to determine if the data will be
deduplicated.
C.The IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server creates a log file named dedup.log to track redundant
files.
D.The client creates extents which are parts of files that are compared with other file extents to
identify
duplicates.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about policy sets? (Choose two.)
A.A policy set must be activated before use.
B.Only one policy set is allowed in one policy domain.
C.A policy set can only contain one management class.
D.There are several policy sets within a policy domain, but only one is default at a time.
E.There can be several policy sets within a policy domain, but only one is active at a time.
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 Which command monitors the amount of active log space used by an IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3 server?
A.query log
B.query logdir
C.query logfree
D.query logspace
Answer: A

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NO.1 Given an eVar with Most Recent expiration that is copied into another variable, what value is
copied?
A. The original value of the eVar, UNLESS a new value was set on the page
B. The value that has persisted from a prior page, UNLESS a new value was set on the page
C. The value set on the page, NOT the value that persists from a prior page
D. The value that has persisted from a prior page, NOT the value on the current page
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which situation can processing rules access the value of a cookie?
A. When a context data variable is added with a namespace of cookie.cookie_name
B. When JavaScript is used to put the value of a cookie into a variable
C. When VISTA is used to put the value of a cookie into a variable
D. When a processing rule uses the Cookie attribute, and a cookie name is specified
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which description most accurately describes Full-processing Data Sources?
A. Each row represents one visitor; each column represents one metric.
B. Each row represents one visitor; each column represents one data dimension and/or metric.
C. Each row represents one classification; each column represents one or multiple metrics.
D. Each row represents one server call; each column represents one data dimension and/or one or
multiple metrics.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In which situation could a processing rule fail to pull the query string parameter from the page
URL?
A. If the destination variable already contains a value
B. If the referrer and the page URL both have the same query string parameter
C. If the query string parameter and value are after the location where the page URL is truncated by
the browser
D. If the query string parameter begins with Adobe's reserved namespace
Answer: B

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NO.5 Consider the processing rule shown in the image. Data is sent to this report suite via a
JavaScript file that contains the getQueryParam plugin. The plugin is configured to populate
campaign with the cid query string parameter. No other processing or VISTA rules are running on
this report suite.
Given the following page URL: http://example.com/index.html?dd=adl001&cpid=ad2002 What is
the value of campaign, after the processing rule has run?
A. Ad1001
B. cid
C. cpid
D. ad2002
E. [no value]
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the best way to roll-back a set of processing rules to a previous state?
A. View the rule history and copy the last good set of rules to the current rule set, then save them
B. Have your Account Manager reset the rules
C. Call ClientCare
D. Re-create the rules based on notes you've kept
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are Processing Rules?
A. Custom logic applied to my SiteCatalyst reports to control how reports are run in the user
interface.
B. Custom logic applied in the Admin Console to control how data is handled after data collection.
C. Code applied to my JavaScript file to control how data is handled prior to data collection.
D. Custom logic written by Adobe Engineering Services and applied to my report suites at my
request to control how data is handled after data collection.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which represents the character limits for Context Data variables, eVars, and props
A. eVars: 255 bytes, props: 255 bytes, Context Data Variables: 255 bytes
B. eVars: 255 bytes, props: 100 bytes, Context Data Variables: 2k bytes
C. eVars: 255 bytes, props: 100 bytes, Context Data Variables: 255 bytes
D. eVars: 255 bytes, props: 255 bytes, Context Data Variables: 100 bytes
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 199-01
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NO.1 Which of the following are Steelhead Mobile Controller alarms? (Select 2)
A. Memory paging
B. Datastore errors
C. Peer version mismatch
D. SSL errors
E. File system full
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Why should you use promiscuous mode on each in-path virtual NIC for Virtual Steelhead
appliance? (Select 2)
A. For LAN/WAN Virtual NICs to intercept traffic not destined for the virtual machine
B. This configuration is mandatory for traffic optimization
C. Promiscuous mode is not required
D. Only verbose mode should be configured
E. Only regular mode should be configured
Answer: A,B

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6. What are the possible ways to downgrade a Virtual Steelhead appliance after it has been
upgraded?
A. Remove the upgrade license and restart the virtual Steelhead appliance
B. Reinstall the original model license
C. Reduce the amount of CPU and RAM allocated to the Virtual Steelhead appliance and it will
automatically downgrade at the next startup
D. It is not possible to downgrade after an upgrade
Answer: D

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7. What deployment type supports fail-to-wire?
A. Physical in-path
B. Virtual in-path
C. Out-of-path
D. Virtual Steelhead appliance
E. Proxy file server
Answer: A

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8. What information does the OVA package include about the Virtual Steelhead appliance?
(Select 4)
A. Virtual disks
B. CPU
C. Memory
D. License
E. Storage
Answer: A,B,C,E

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9. Which of the following features are available with the Virtual Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)
A. RSP
B. HSTCP
C. Fail-to-wire
D. PFS
E. Datastore synchronization
Answer: B,E

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10. What platform is supported by SMC-VE?
A. ESX 3.5
B. ESX 4.0
C. ESX 4.1
D. RSP
E. HyperV
Answer: D

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11. What happens to traffic when a Steelhead appliance reports admission control?
A. Traffic will be interrupted
B. The Steelhead stops the interception of new connections for optimization for as long as it is in
admission control
C. This is just a report and the Steelhead will continue to optimize traffic
D. The Steelhead will start optimizing faster any new connections
E. The Steelhead will shut down in less than a minute
Answer: B

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12. Where are SDR references maintained on a Steelhead appliance?
A. Persistent storage
B. USB keys
C. Flash storage
D. RSP partition
E. Configuration file
Answer: A

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13. When deploying a Virtual Steelhead appliance, how much extra memory should be allocated
for the extra VMware overhead?
A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 10%
E. 2%
Answer: C

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14. You can monitor your Steelhead appliance disk performance using which reports? (Select 2)
A. Data Store Cost
B. Data Store Performance
C. Disk Load
D. SDR Hit
E. Disk Pressure
F. Disk Alarm
Answer: A,C

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15. What of the following are true when deploying the Virtual Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)
A. Only use 10 Gbps link
B. Never reserve virtual CPU
C. Do not over provision physical RAM
D. Always use SSD drives
E. Do not share physical NICs
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Can you optimize FTP using Steelhead Mobile?
A. Yes, this is possible on all FTP modes
B. When using active FTP
C. When using passive FTP
D. It is not possible to optimize FTP traffic
E. Only when there is no firewall enabled
Answer: C

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NO.4 When upgrading a Virtual Steelhead appliance, what steps can be taken to preserve the
existing datastore?
A. When upgrading a Virtual Steelhead appliance, it is not possible to preserve the existing
datastore
B. Detach the existing datastore and re-attach to the new Virtual Steelhead appliance
C. Run vMotion and move the datastore to a different ESX host before performing the upgrade and
then bring it back afterwards
D. Move the existing datastore to an NFS share and move it back after the upgrade
Answer: A

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NO.5 The amount of memory required for Steelhead Mobile installation varies between 81 MB to
228 MB.What is the reasons for the variation?
A. Number of TCP connections
B. Types of application
C. Datastore size
D. Bandwidth
E. All of the above
Answer: C

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Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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NO.1 What information does the value category provide in the maintenance order?
A. The costs details for individual technical objects
B. The costs by work center
C. The material costs by valuation category
D. A summary of costs for multiple cost elements
Answer: D

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NO.2 A maintenance technician replaces a defective counter with a new counter.
Before the users can create a standard measuring document for the new counter, what step(s) must
they perform?
A. Create a new technical object to represent the new measuring point.
B. Create a special measuring document and set the Counter Replacement indicator.
C. Dismantle the old measuring point and create a new measuring point.
D. Create a new measuring point and change the measuring point from which the measurement
reading was transferred.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are prerequisites for business completion?(Choose two)
A. The order must have actual costs.
B. The order must be fully settled.
C. The balance of the order must be zero.
D. The order must have planned costs.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which of the following always produces up-to-the-minute costing information for
maintenance orders?
A. A standard analysis from the Plant Maintenance Information System (PMIS)
B. A standard query in SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
C. A maintenance order list
D. A shift report based on shift notes
Answer: C

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NO.5 A maintenance plan has a completion requirement. The plan contains five maintenance
items that produce five notifications.
Which system status must each notification have before the maintenance call is completed and the
next maintenance call can be generated?
A. REL (Released)
B. ATCO (All Tasks Completed)
C. TECO (Technically Completed)
D. NOCO (Notification Completed)
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following Customizing settings is required to assign a notification to a
maintenance order operation?
A. Assignment of operations to all object list entries active
B. Assignment of order type to notification type
C. Maintain indicator for notification data on order header
D. Create default value profiles for general order data
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is a function of deadline monitoring (transaction IP30)?
A. Generate a Logistics Information System (LIS) report for scheduled maintenance items within a
specific period.
B. Convert maintenance notifications into maintenance orders within a specific period.
C. Convert maintenance calls into call objects within a specific period.
D. Generate a Logistics Information System (LIS) report for all overdue maintenance calls.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When the user creates a maintenance plan for a call object (order), which value in the
planning data determines the order type?
A. Priority
B. Maintenance activity type
C. Maintenance planner group
D. Main work center
Answer: C

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NO.1 What can you use to control the Scopia XT Telepresence system?
A. You can use the XT remote control for basic functions.
B. You can only use Scopia Control.
C. You can use both the XT remote control and Scopia Control.
D. You can use the XT remote control for all functions.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which action can a user take when using Scopia Mobile?
A. Participate in the conference as audio only
B. Perform most of the moderating functions of the conference
C. Perform all moderating functions of the conference
D. Share data with other participants
Answer: D

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NO.3 Is registration to a Gatekeeper or SIP Proxy required when using the Video IVR/Auto Attendant?
A. Yes, it is required.
B. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a Gatekeeper.
C. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a SIP Proxy.
D. No, it is not required.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is correct regarding the Scopia Elite MCUs?
A. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition, Standard Definition, and Voice only ports in the
same conference.
B. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition or Standard Definition ports.
C. The Elite MCUs only support High Definition ports.
D. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition and Voice only ports.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://static.dekom.com/uploads/tx_vidowawi/Videokonferenz-Radvision-ScopiaElite600
0-Series-MCU-Administrator-Guide_V8.0.pdf(page 9)

NO.5 How do you configure an Audio-only service in the MCU?
A. By selecting a service type and deselecting the multimedia option
B. By removing all video codecs from the video codecs table
C. By selecting all audio codecs from the audio codecs table
D. By selecting a service type and checking the "audio only" checkbox
Answer: D

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Reference:https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8 /documents/100173463(p.24)

NO.6 What are two of the main functions of the Scopia Video Gateway for Lync? (Choose two.)
A. SIP Presence to Lync client
B. H.323 Presence to Lync client
C. Point-to-point and Multipoint calls between Lync clients and H.323 devices
D. One Click to voicemail
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 An administrator would like to enable auto-attendant in Scopia Management.
What must the administrator do to ensure that auto-attendant works properly?
A. Restart the Elite MCU
B. Disable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
C. Enable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
D. Route auto-attendant to the Elite MCU
Answer: D

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Reference:http://docs.radvision.com/bundle/iv_admin_guide_8 /iv_uc_ms_ag_IVR

NO.8 What are two features that Scopia Elite MCUs provide in a video conferencing deployment?
(Choose two.)
A. Continuous Presence
B. Integration to Microsoft Lync
C. Data Collaboration
D. Gatekeeper access
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 Consider the following diagram:
What does the diagram express about the Underwriting Application?
A. It has three distinct components
B. It processes three different types of data objects
C. It performs three different functions
D. It groups together three components that are not a part of the Underwriting Application
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which application layer concept is defined as a passive element?
A. Application component
B. Application function r
C. Data object
D. Business object
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about ArchiMate viewpoint classification is correct?
A. There are three purpose dimensions and three abstraction levels
B. There are two purpose dimensions and three abstraction layers
C. There are four purpose dimensions and two abstraction levels
D. There are three purpose dimensions and four abstraction layers
Answer: A

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NO.4 Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project
at ArchiSurance. Note that premium in this context means the total revenue ArchiSurance receives
from legal services insurance premium payments:
Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. ArchiSurance has attributed a 15% increase in premium to the transformation project in 2012
B. The increased premium revenue created by completion of the transformation project will
motivate significant change in the ArchiSurance Legally Yours division
C. ArchiSurance has set a goal to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012, as compared to
the previous year
D. ArchiSurance has a requirement to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012
Answer: C

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NO.5 The following diagram shows a typical group of stakeholders: Which ArchiMate viewpoint
abstraction level would support these stakeholders for the purpose of change management?
A. Coherence
B. Designing
C. Details
D. Overview
Answer: D

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NO.6 The following diagram shows an example of the use of the Migration viewpoint: Which of the
following best describes a reason for using this viewpoint?
A. To model the management of architecture change
B. To help determine the priorities of implementation projects
C. To relate programs and projects to the parts of the architecture that they implement
D. To help in planning the transition from the current architecture to a desired future architecture
Answer: D

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10. According to the ISO/IEC 40210 standard, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. A view conforms to a viewpoint
B. A viewpoint always addresses one or more stakeholders
C. A concern is always important to one or more stakeholders
D. A viewpoint always covers exactly one concern
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following phases of the TOGAF ADM correspond most closely to the ArchiMate
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A. Preliminary, Architecture Vision, Requirements Management
B. Opportunities and Solutions, Migration Planning, Implementation Governance
C. Architecture Change Management
D. Business Architecture, Information Systems Architectures, Technology Architecture
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following best describes why ArchiMate supports specialization of concepts?
A. It is the only way to model enterprise architecures that are useable and easy to communicate to
the stakeholders
B. It is needed to represent the same concept on different viewpoints
C. It provides extra flexibility, enabling users to customize the language to their own preferences
and needs, while maintaining the underlying precise definition of the concepts
D. It is allowed because without this mechanism it would be impossible to add attributes to
ArchiMate concepts and relations
Answer: C

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NO.1 If a CSDA gets declined, how much notice should be given to a customer that services will
terminate?
A. 10 working days.
B. 30 working days.
C. 30 calendar days.
D. CT Head decides.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When we receive payment for a customer invoice, what financial statement is affected?
A. The Profit & Loss statement only.
B. Both the Profit & Loss statement and the Balance Sheet.
C. Profit & Loss and Cash Flow statements.
D. Balance Sheet statement only.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which transaction in SAP triggers the cost of work by an external supplier?
A. Setting the value to the Purchase Order.
B. Goods Receipt of the Purchase Order.
C. Booking the supplier invoice.
D. Vendor item quantity update.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In NELLE, CIT resources are:
A. planned as man-working-days (MWD).
B. planned as Head-Count.
C. planned as money value.
D. not planned with NELLE.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the 3 Care SWS portfolio segments?
A. Active Network Assurance (ANWA), Preventive Services, Launch Support services.
B. Active Network Assurance (ANWA), Software Evolution & Expertise (SEE) and Multi Supplier
Support (MSS).
C. Active Network Assurance (ANWA), Software Evolution & Expertise (SEE), Life Extender (LE)
Services.
D. There are only two portfolio segments in Care SWS: Active Network Assurance (ANWA), Software
Evolution & Expertise (SEE).
Answer: B

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NO.6 The Care Plan should be updated:
A. At least once per year.
B. Only after each contract change.
C. After each change to Care setup described.
D. On customer request only.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is Gross Profit?
A. Gross Sales minus discounts and penalties.
B. Net Sales minus Cost of Goods Sold.
C. Gross sales minus all Operating Costs.
D. Gross Sales minus Gross Costs.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Who should be the responsible person in NSN to discuss with the Customer's Operations
Manager the needed services and their view on the current Care Contract?
A. Account Manager or Care Program Manager.
B. Account Manager.
C. Care Program Manager.
D. Service Engagement Manager.
Answer: A

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