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Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12
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Last Update: 2014-08-04

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Exam Code: ST0-250
Exam Name: Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 Technical Assessment
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NO.1 Which directory data source function must be enabled to help prevent a directory harvest
attack?
A. Active Directory connector
B. Dynamic Data Sourcing
C. LDAP authentication
D. Recipient validation
Answer: D

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NO.2 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5?
A. Store backup on local server
B. Store backup on a remote location using FTP
C. Encrypt local backup
D. Purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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6. After a configurable period of time, a suspect virus is released from the Suspect Virus
Quarantine. What happens to it next?
A. An alert is sent to the email administrator.
B. The attachment is removed and the original message is delivered to the recipient.
C. It is rescanned.
D. It is moved to quarantine.
Answer: C

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7. What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A. Dynamic Data Cache
B. Directory Data Service
C. Active Directory
D. Domain Controller Interface (DCInterface)
Answer: B

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8. If recipient validation is configured properly, which SMTP response level is given to messages
that fail recipient validation queries at connect time?
A. 3xx - Service unavailable
B. 4xx - Temporary delivery failure
C. 5xx - Permanent delivery failure
D. 6xx - Rejected validation failure
Answer: C

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9. How should an administrator stop inbound mail using the command line interface (CLI)?
A. use mta-control
B. use mta-stop
C. use mail-control
D. use mail-stop
Answer: A

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10. Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts
via reports?
A. Spam and Unwanted Mail
B. Submissions
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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11. Which two statistics can the administrator view regarding the custom anti-spam rulesets?
(Select two.)
A. the "top-submitters" of missed spam or false positive detections
B. the "top submitters" of messages that are not valid and did not generate a custom rule
C. how many emails have been submitted for custom antispam rules
D. the effectiveness of the custom antispam rulesets compared to Symantec's rulesets
E. the top senders of messages detected by custon antispam rulesets
Answer: A,C

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12. What two actions can allowed end-users do to submit samples to Symantec and have custom
anti-spam rules created? (Select two.)
A. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client
B. flag messages in their web-based SMG quarantine page as being spam and submitting the results
C. forward spam samples to abuse@symantec.com with a subject of "MISSED SPAM"
D. move the message into the included "Junk E-mail" folder available in Outlook
E. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client available for Lotus Domino
Answer: A,B

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13. A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are
recognized by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure the same administrator email address across both control centers
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure both control centers with the same internal email hosts
Answer: A

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14. An organization would like to participate in the Symantec Probe Network without having to
manually create decoy email accounts. The organization wants to make sure that the addresses that
participate in the Symantec Probe Network are currently receiving email. Which directory data
source function should be enabled to help in this situation?
A. recipient validation
B. address resolution
C. SMTP authentication
D. LDAP routing
Answer: A

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15. What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5
appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. DVD-ROM drive listed on hardware compatibility list
C. valid license file
D. machine account created in Active Directory
Answer: A

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NO.4 Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 will be deployed to receive mail directly from the Internet.
In this situation, which option should be selected within the Inbound Mail Filtering - Accepted Hosts
step of the site setup wizard?
A. Enable MX lookup
B. Define a list of domains
C. Specify IP addresses/domains
D. Select all IP addresses
Answer: D

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NO.5 How does Symantec DLP communicate with Symantec Messaging Gateway (SMG) to indicate
what type of incident (if any) is related to a given message?
A. Symantec DLP uses the ICAP protocol to indicate if a message is clean,or if it violated any defined
policies.
B. Symantec DLP will add information into the message that can be interpreted by SMG and then
send it to SMG via SMTP .
C. Symantec DLP will quarantine messages that violate established policies,blocking it from SMG.
D. Symantec DLP will use TLS to send a notification message to the SMG server for any content
violations.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x
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Exam Code: 250-513
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12
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NO.1 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight
Alert Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running.
Which policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.2 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be
updated. Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have
been updated, the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the
database.
However, after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an
old date instead of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because
several policies were modified at the sametime.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though
the agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application.
During deployment, the administrator determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be
changed without modifying the MSI.
The administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package.
Which policies would be affected when the default install command line of a software package is
modified in the Software Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.4 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the
Managed Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new
application.
What should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.5 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application
from running on company computers.
Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog.
There is a duplicate for a software resource.
The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and selected the
option to merge duplicate resources.
What will happen to the duplicate entries in the Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the
duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate isdeleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the
newest timestamp isdeleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry
with the oldest timestamp isdeleted.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 250-407
Exam Name: Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
250-407 Braindumps Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-07-28

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Exam Code: 250-513
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
250-513 Test Questions Total Q&A: 300 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-07-28

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NO.1 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight
Alert Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running.
Which policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.2 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be
updated. Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have
been updated, the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the
database.
However, after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an
old date instead of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because
several policies were modified at the sametime.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though
the agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application.
During deployment, the administrator determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be
changed without modifying the MSI.
The administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package.
Which policies would be affected when the default install command line of a software package is
modified in the Software Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.4 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the
Managed Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new
application.
What should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.5 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application
from running on company computers.
Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

Symantec Practice Test   250-407 Real Questions   250-407 Practice Exam

NO.6 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog.
There is a duplicate for a software resource.
The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and selected the
option to merge duplicate resources.
What will happen to the duplicate entries in the Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the
duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate isdeleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the
newest timestamp isdeleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry
with the oldest timestamp isdeleted.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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NO.1 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.2 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.5 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

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