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Exam Code: E20-005
Exam Name: Backup Recovery Systems and Architecture Exam
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Exam Code: E22-186
Exam Name: EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint Administration Exam
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NO.1 An Active Directory group has permissions for Sites A, B, and C. An end user searches for specific
documents and is presented with results from all three sites.
The SharePoint administrator deletes site B and then creates site D, granting permission to the same
Active Directory group.
The end user conducts the previous search again.
How are the end user's search results affected?
A. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included, but documents from Site B are inaccessible from
search results
B. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
C. only documents from sites A and C are included and are accessible from search results
D. only documents from sites A, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
Answer: B

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NO.2 The administrator needs to delete a site that has permissions defined via a custom site-specific group.
What should the administrator do before the site is deleted?
A. remove the custom site-specific permission
B. change the ownership of the content to Farm Administrator
C. grant Read access to all SharePoint user accounts
D. assign a higher level group with Read access
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the lowest SharePoint organizational level at which the SharePoint Archive activity can be
configured?
A. Farm
B. Site
C. List
D. Folder
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company's SharePoint farm content databases continue to grow past the Microsoft recommended
size. What can an administrator do to alleviate this problem?
A. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Shortcut activity to replace SharePoint content with shortcut files
B. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Archive activity and copy older content to an Archive folder
C. install, configure, and enable the EMC SourceOne EBS Provider for the SharePoint farm
D. ensure automatic disposition is configured on the SourceOne Archive folder
Answer: C

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NO.5 The External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine recovers storage from which location?
A. Message Center
B. Large Content subdirectory
C. Worker Temp directory
D. Index Temp directory
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the function of the SharePoint Archiving activity?
A. shortcuts SharePoint items into the Native Archive
B. archives SharePoint items into a Mapped folder
C. shortcuts SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
D. archives SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
Answer: B

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NO.7 How long will a user's last query be remembered within SharePoint when the Fire-And-Forget search
feature is used?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a benefit of EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. improves SharePoint performance and scalability by short-cutting content on the SharePoint SQL
servers
B. leverages the SharePoint infrastructure for retention and policy management
C. provides a single, unified search mechanism across archive and SharePoint content
D. improves management of SharePoint libraries and lists and the various content types within them
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-616
Exam Name: Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist
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Exam Code: E20-007
Exam Name: Data Science and Big Data Analytics
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NO.1 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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NO.2 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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NO.3 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.4 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.6 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.8 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-818
Exam Name: Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers
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Exam Code: E20-322
Exam Name: Technology Architect Solutions Design
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NO.1 You must design a backup solution for an existing Celerra NS80 customer. The customer has decided
that the expense of expanding their tape hardware infrastructure to support the additional load is not
justified because the data is for department-level user shares.
Which alternate solution should you use to back up the Celerra with minimal cost and disruption to their
current backup procedures?
A.Add an EMC Disk Library with 1 TB SATA drives
B.Add FC disks to the NS80 and back up using Celerra VTLUs
C.Add SATA disks to the NS80 and back up to disk
D.Add a second NS80 and replicate the backup data
Answer:C

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NO.2 A request has been made to collect the information that has been gathered by SAN Advisor. You notice
the data has not been collected.
In order for SAN Advisor to receive information about the environment, what service is used?
A.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Repository
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Server
C.EMC Ionix ControlCenter StorageScope Repository
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter ECCAPI
Answer:D

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NO.3 A customer has recently purchased Open Replicator and needs to know which GUI interface would be
best for administration.
What should be your response?
A.Navisphere Manager
B.SAN Advisor
C.Symmetrix Management Console
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter
Answer:C

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NO.4 A customer would like to eliminate tape from their backup environment. They do not have a SAN
infrastructure.
Which solution should you recommend?
A.EDL 4406
B.Symmetrix with SATA
C.CLARiiON CX with SATA
D.NS80 with internal VTLU
Answer:D

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NO.5 You have been requested to provide a solution that will monitor resource best practices, create alerts
when the environment exceeds recommended boundaries, and requires no agents to be installed on the
network.
Which product will provide this capability?
A.Storage Configuration Advisor
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter
C.SAN Advisor
D.Storage Insight for Availability
Answer:A

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NO.6 A customer is implementing a new DMX-4 system in their data center. They have decided to use
Enterprise Flash Drive (EFD) technology in their design for their critical Oracle database.
Which database objects would gain the least benefit from EFDs?
A.High transaction rate table/index
B.Lookup tables
C.Index
D.Redo logs
Answer:D

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NO.7 In addition to "Software as a Service" and "Infrastructure as a Service," which main category of service
falls within the definition of cloud computing?
A.Platform as a Service
B.Hardware as a Service
C.VM as a Service
D.Facility as a Service
Answer:A

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NO.8 A business is planning to migrate a physical, Oracle 11g database environment to a virtualized VMAX
platform.
What would be the primary benefit to the business if such a migration were implemented?
A.Migrating to new servers or new storage devices would enable the business to maintain 100% uptime.
B.Virtualization would enable multiple Oracle database environments to run under one instance.
C.VMAX configurations would provide auto back-end load balancing configurations for Oracle dbf files.
D.Virtualization on VMAX storage would automatically lay out database objects.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: E20-538
Exam Name: Network Attached Storage (NAS) Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators
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Exam Code: E20-594
Exam Name: Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers
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NO.1 Which statement describes the public network connection of a Celerra with a single Control Station?
A. Comprised of a single physical Ethernet connection
B. Is formed from dual redundant physical Ethernet connections
C. Comprised of a virtual Ethernet EtherChannel connection
D. Is formed from a virtual Ethernet LACP connection
Answer: A

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NO.2 A site administrator would like to have file system quota implemented. However, the administrator is
worried about users who create symbolic links.
How can symbolic links be excluded from the file system quota?
A. Use group and user quotas together
B. Use the filesize policy
C. Use the block policy
D. Use the excl option when configuring the quota
Answer: B

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NO.3 A network administrator needs to create a trunk on a Data Mover from dissimilar physical network
devices.
What networking configuration should be used to accomplish this?
A. LACP
B. Fail Safe Network
C. EtherChannel
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.4 Management asks you to set quota limits on a directory tree.
They want the default set to 500 MB with a possible overhead of 20%. They want to enforce these limits
on the sum of the logical size of objects in that quota tree. What is part of the correct answer?
A. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the Data Mover.
B. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
C. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
D. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the blocksize quota policy.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are asked by management to create a project directory and track the individual user consumption
in this directory using Celerra quota features. No limits should be enforced.
What would be part of an appropriate procedure to satisfy this requirement?
A. Set up a user quota on the share; specify the limits with the keyword "none" in the CLI
B. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; set up a user quota on the quota tree; specify the limits for the
tree quota and user quota with a value of zero in the GUI
C. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; leave the two fields specifying the limits for the quota tree and
the user quota blank in the Unisphere GUI
D. Set up a user quota on the file system (accommodating the new directory); specify the limits with the
keyword "none" in the GUI
Answer: C

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NO.6 You enter the following command: nas_fs -create size=3M pool=clar_r5_economy
What will be the result?
A. The file system is created with a default file system name.
B. The file system and a mountpoint are created.
C. Only the mountpoint is created.
D. The file system is not created.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a Celerra quota is turned off, how does that affect the existing user and group quota information?
A. User and group quota statistics are deleted.
B. Group statistics are retained and user statistics are not.
C. User and group statistics are retained.
D. User statistics are retained and group statistics are not.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator configured Data Mover network devices to transmit frames on all links for redundancy.
Which network configuration was used to accomplish this.?
A. LACP
B. Proxy ARP
C. Ethernet channel
D. RARP
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-405
Exam Name: EMC Content Management Server Programming(CMSP)
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Exam Code: E20-895
Exam Name: Backup Recovery - Avamar Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers
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Exam Code: E20-880
Exam Name: VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
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NO.1 A customer would like to use five Ethernet ports on a VNX to increase the port and switch availability.
Two non-stackable Ethernet switches are available for the VNX and both support Full Duplex
communications.
How should the customer configure the VNX for the network?
A. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation
B. Link Aggregation only
C. EtherChannel and Fail Safe Networking
D. EtherChannel only
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your customer is designing a Proof of Concept with SQL Server attached to a VNX. The storage
design includes seven LUNs on a RAID Group. The system is generally very heavily loaded, with a
particularly high load on the cache. This is a very carefully controlled environment and your customer has
asked for assistance in planning the layout of the LUN location on the physical spindles.
Where in the RAID Group would you recommend placing the two heavily used LUNs for a short-stroked
architecture?
A. Adjacent to each other at the beginning
B. One at beginning and one at the end
C. Adjacent to each other in the middle
D. Evenly placed, as non-adjacent as possible
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your customer has a new VNX solution configured with Flash, SAS, and NL-SAS drives. The customer
requires their OLTP, VDI, Software Development, and Regulatory Compliance workloads to be distributed
between the different drive types. Due to limited drive quantities only one workload type can be configured
using Flash drives.
According to best practices which configuration best assigns the workloads.?
A. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
B. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
C. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
D. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has designed an environment using block based LUNs presented to individual hosts. They
have configured a pool to start using both thick and thin LUNs. One of the standalone servers is an
archive server running on Windows. They want to maximize capacity on the standalone server since the
data is no longer accessed. They have no more drives to increase LUN capacity.
How can the customer increase available capacity to the archive server?
A. Compress the data on the block based LUN
B. Add capacity to the existing LUN
C. Delete old files
D. Back up the files, reconfigure the LUN, and restore the data
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:
-80% reads and 20% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 5
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which action would be most effective in reducing the performance impact of a Snapshot on a Source
LUN?
A. Using faster disks for the Source LUN
B. Using faster disks for the Reserved LUN Pool
C. Increasing the Snapshot chunk size
D. Increasing the Snapshot write-aside size
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are migrating a backup application that runs on physical servers to a VDC. The VDC storage is
currently a VNX configured with NL-SAS drives only. Your customer is concerned about the cost to
achieve reasonable performance. You are designing the VMs that will support the application.
Based on cost, which would be the first solution you would recommend?
A. VMware Paravirtual SCSI virtual adapter
B. Virtual adapter is BusLogic Parallel
C. FAST VP Pool (Flash and SAS drives)
D. SAS RAID Group
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:S
-85% reads and 15% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 1/0
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: B

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NO.1 A customer is implementing the Replication Manager/SAN Copy/RepliStor solution for DR of their
Exchange environment. In the process of configuring this solution they need to configure the RM DR
utility to run after the completion of the SAN Copy job.
Which level of IR callout should they use in order for the script to invoke at the proper time?
A.100
B.300
C.400
D.600
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has recently upgraded their CLARiiON to FLARE R26. What software and configuration
changes must the storage administrator ensure are in place to take advantage of the Asymmetric
Active/Active features of the software?
A.PowerPath 5.0; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 2
B.PowerPath 5.0; disable ArrayCommPath, and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
C.PowerPath 5.1; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
D.PowerPath 5.1; disable Array CommPath, and change all host initiators to use Failover mode 3
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has configured SnapView for two LUNs on a DR CLARiiON storage system. When the
client attempts to run the Navisphere Secure CLI command to create the snapshot session, it fails.
In the setup process for using SnapView, which step did the customer forget to do?
A.Allocate LUNs to the Reserved LUN Pool
B.Allocate Write Intent Log
C.Enable Incremental Synchronization
D.Test IP link latency
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company has implemented Replication Manager to back up their SQL Server. In addition to clone
copies every 6 hours, they have also implemented SQL Server log backups for a more granular RPO.
Last night, a junior DBA corrupted the production database. After using Replication Manager to restore
the database with no recovery, the senior DBA attempts to replay the transaction log backups but the
database returns an error indicating that no database is in a state to replay logs.
What is the cause of this restore failure?
A.Replication Manager only supports transaction log replay on databases restored with full recovery
B.rmsqlrestore.exe was not used to replay the VDI metadata
C.The restored database's SCN is out of sync with the SQL system databases
D.The transaction log backups have a gap in the sequence of transactions
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer was running a snapshot session when they noticed a SP failure. The Source LUN was
owned by the failed SP. What will happen to the session and the Reserved LUN Pool (RLP) LUN?
A.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN must be
manually trespassed to the original owning SP.
B.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN trespasses
back to the original owning SP.
C.Session gets deactivated and the SP frees the allocated LUN. After fixing the failed SP, the session will
activate and the original RLP LUN will be allocated.
D.Session stops and a new RLP LUN will be allocated on the surviving SP upon fixing the failed SP. The
RLP LUN will trespass back to the original SP and the user must manually restart the session.
Answer: B

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NO.1 What feature of the VNX measures, monitors and controls application performance on the storage
system?
A. FASTVP
B. Unisphere Quality of Service Manager
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which compression state is being utilized when data compression is first enabled while background
setup
operations are performed by system?
A. Compressing
B. Compressed
C. Queued
D. Initializing
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two (2) are key benefits of the VNX File Reduplication?
A. Reduced power costs
B. Improved application performance
C. Improved reliability of applications
D. Reduced reliance on short-term tape retention
E. Improved LAN and WAN performance
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 What feature of the VNX allows the array to avoid cache misses and improves response time by
promoting data from Hard Disk Drives to Flash Drives?
A. FASTVP
B. Data Compression
C. Fash Cashe
D. Unisphere Analyzer
Answer: C

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NO.5 What feature of the VNX allows the array to move more active data to faster drives and less active
data to
slower drives?
A. FASTVP
B. FAST Cashe
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: A

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NO.6 What feature of the VNX allows the array to free up space by eliminating redundant data?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. FASTVP
C. Data Compression
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: C

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NO.7 Zoning with World Wide Names is often referred to as what?
A. Host Zoning
B. Hard Zoning
C. WWNN Zoning
D. Soft Zoning
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three (3) are considered software features of the VNXe?
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B. FibreChannel Connectivity
C. Active/active ease of use
D. Simplified Management
E. Unified IP based protocols
F. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.1 How would you justify the use of CLARiiON splitters in your design.?
A. To avoid an excessive number of ITLs created on the SANTap splitter
B. To take advantage of the VMware vCenter integration for protected virtual machines
C. To minimize the required hardware purchases if SANTap was used for all splitting
D. To separate the splitter load to reduce the expected high load on the WAN link
Answer: A

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NO.2 The customer wants to create application-consistent copies of Exchange 2010 and SharePoint 2007
data in a CLR configuration.
What RecoverPoint features would help the customer meet this requirement?
A. KVSS and VDI integration utilities
B. KVSS and Oracle integration utilities
C. SQLSNAP and VDI integration utilities
D. SQLSNAP and TimeFinder integration utilities
Answer: A

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NO.3 What would you recommend to help ease the workload on the customer s support staff?
A. Provide Remote Operations Services
B. Upgrade the Advanced Management Pod (AMP) to an HA AMP
C. Implement an IP aggregation solution
D. Implement Vblock Traffic Planes
Answer: A

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Topic 5, Scenario 17
Refer to the Exhibit.
A small hospital has a three-tier web application that manages the disbursement of medicine to patients.
Key steps in the process include:
-A doctor at the hospital prescribes medicines to a patient using a handheld device.
-The handheld device connects to the prescription application server through a secure connection
-The application authenticates the doctor's credentials.
-A database records the patient number, doctor's name, and prescribed medicine and dose.
-The prescription order is crosschecked with the patient s history. (That history is entered into a separate
application and database when the patient is admitted to the hospital.)
-If no problems are detected, the order is sent as an email to the hospital pharmacy.
-The pharmacy dispenses the medicine, and prints a label that is crosschecked by the nurse before the
medicine is administered to the patient.
This application, and all applications with which it communicates, must always be available so that
medicine can be given to patients. This means that any problems with the hospital network, application
servers, database servers, or storage arrays must be identified and resolved immediately.

NO.4 Click the calculator icon in the upper left corner of the screen.
According to EMC best practices, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected 15,000 rpm spindles
needed (155 IOPS) to support the performance profile of the Microsoft Exchange database volumes?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 14
D. 18
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Security Operations team would like a way to quickly mitigate security vulnerabilities that are
reported by networking equipment vendors.
Which solution should be used to identify hospital equipment that is affected by these vulnerabilities?
A. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Network Advisor
B. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Report Advisor
C. RSA enVision
D. Application Discovery Manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 How will this solution enable the customer to meet their cost savings objectives?
A. The new infrastructure will dramatically reduce implementation, testing and management efforts.
B. The new infrastructure will provide a centralized, multitenant logical architecture.
C. vStorage APIs will offload work from the hosts, allowing the hosts to scale more efficiently.
D. The highly available architecture with automated remote replication will reduce the frequency and cost
of downtime.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Your customer has an RPO of five hours for accounts receivables during the business hours of 8 a.m.
to 6 p.m. The customer's requirement is that a tape copy of a SQL level backup be made to match each
five-hour RPO mark. The creation of the SQL level tape copy must not compromise production server
performance.
To achieve these goals, Step 1 is to use Replication Manager (RM) to create a snapshot at noon and at 5
p.m.
What other steps are required?
A. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
B. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
C. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
D. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
Answer: A

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Topic 4, Scenario 15
A midsized company wants to implement a highly integrated IT infrastructure including storage, network,
compute, and management software resources.
The IT executives think they spend too much time and effort today building, testing, and optimizing
individual components in their infrastructure. They hope to consolidate their existing server-based VDI
environment with 950 desktops, 1000 Microsoft Exchange mailboxes, and homegrown Linuxbased
applications onto a virtualized infrastructure. The goal is to reduce the current costs of their aging best of
breed
HP, Juniper, Brocade, NetApp, and CLARiiON infrastructure.
The company wants the solution to have the following capabilities:
-Built-in high availability and redundancy
-Offsite disaster recovery with automated failover
-Architectural predictability
-Optimized storage, compute, and network
-Predictable and efficient power and cooling usage
-Calculable VM scaling
-Ease of deployment and use
-Rapid provisioning capabilities
-Simplified management
You have recommended implementing cloud services using Vblock architecture.

NO.8 Topic 1, Scenario 27
Refer to the Exhibit.
A financial institution is implementing a disaster recovery (DR) solution for their key Oracle databases and
other critical data. RecoverPoint has been chosen as the replication technology to use for the DR solution.
For maximum protection, the replication uses CLR for all Oracle systems; CRR is used for all other data.
The production site uses Sun servers for the Oracle servers and Microsoft Windows Server 2008 hosts for
all other data repositories. Storage arrays for the Oracle servers are Symmetrix arrays. All other data and
business departments store their data on CLARiiON CX4 arrays.
Recently, the human resources and finance departments were migrated to the DMX to enhance security
and performance requirements.
This company also plans to bring in a new acquisition with AIX and VMware servers in the next six months.
The AIX servers will be placed on DMX storage and the VMware servers will be placed on CLARiiON
storage. Both are slated for CDP protection.
The DR site is located 2,500 km away from the production site. A dedicated T3 WAN link runs at 44 Mb/s.
Management and replication traffic will use separate VLANs. Each site contains eight RecoverPoint
appliances (RPAs) to maximize the performance and fault-tolerance business requirements. SANTap is
used for all Oracle splitting, and CX splitters are used for all other data.
To support the actual replication needs, 12 group sets were created to support the consistency within the
Oracle consistency groups. The policies on these sets include an RPO of 15 minutes.
The remainder of the data uses 54 consistency groups with an RPO of two hours.
1.What should be done to improve the performance of the WAN link for replication?
A. Enable QoS for the VLAN with RecoverPoint traffic
B. Set the link speed on the RPA to "max throughput"
C. Enable QoS on the Oracle consistency groups
D. Configure EtherChannel Link Aggregation for use with the WAN link
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-361
Exam Name: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam)
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Total Q&A: 319 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-17

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NO.1 What application provides integration between the Celerra and the iSCSI host for replicating an iSCSI
LUN?
A.Replication Manager
B.Unisphere Manager
C.Navisphere Manager
D.Celerra Manager
Answer:D

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NO.2 You just created a new file system and exported it as an NFS export. You are informed that someone
deleted the .etc configuration directory.
What would be the best way to prevent this in the future?
A.Remove write permission on the .etc directory.
B.Export a subdirectory of the root file system.
C.Educate users about deleting system directories.
D.Set the hidden attribute on the root directory.
Answer:B

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NO.3 You are implementing a Celerra CIFS solution. When discussing the mapping method choices, the site
administrator asks you to explain the significance of the user mapping method for CIFS users.
How do you respond to the site administrator?
A.CIFS servers that join the Windows domain are assigned domain SIDs. The mapping method is used to
uniquely identify the CIFS servers in the Windows AD domain to UNIX NFS servicers in the NIS domain.
B.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that requires UNIX style UIDs and GIDs for file and directory
permissions. Windows users and groups are identified with SIDs. The mapping method correlates UNIX
UIDs and GIDs to Windows SIDs for uniquely identifying users.
C.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that stores UNIX style UIDs and GIDs and Windows SIDs for file
and directory permissions. The mapping method correlates the SIDs for local group permissions on the
CIFS server shares.
D.Stand-alone CIFS servers require a manual SID assignment when configured on a Celerra. When
users from the Windows domain access the Celerra the mapping method correlates the stand-alone CIFS
server SID with the Windows user SIDs.
Answer:B

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NO.4 File systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
D.iSCSI LUNs
Answer:B

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NO.5 What is the default result of joining a CIFS server to a Windows Active Directory domain?
A.The CIFS server shares are dynamically updated in DNS.
B.The CIFS server interface is dynamically assigned from Active Directory.
C.The "EMC Celerra" container is created in Active Directory.
D.The CIFS server is added to the Active Directory Computers container.
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which statement describes Celerra gateway Fibre Channel connectivity between the blades and the
back-end storage?
A.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct connection.
B.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct
C.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
D.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which Celerra Data Mover file controls both the services used for name resolution and the order in
which they are used?
A.nsswitch.conf
B.nslookup.conf
C.hosts.conf
D.resolv.conf
Answer:A

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NO.8 The storage administrator would like to know if more AV servers are necessary for optimal
performance and protection.
Which tool can the system administrator use to analyze current utilization of the antivirus environment?
A.CAVA Calculator
B.NAS Support Matrix
C.CAVA Sizing Tool
D.Celerra Monitor
Answer:C

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NO.9 A Celerra file system has a SnapSure schedule enabled for daily checkpoints. By using the Microsoft
Shadow Copy Client, a user can see previous versions of a certain file up to a certain date in the past, but
nothing else after that.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A.Checkpoints are currently being used by an application.
B.All of the checkpoints have been refreshed.
C.There have been no changes to the file.
D.The SavVol has reached a full state.
Answer:D

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NO.10 An administrator wants to present several CIFS shares to users through one file server. The shares are
stored on many physical machines. What can be used with the Celerra to achieve this goal?
A.Celerra global CIFS server
B.Default CIFS server
C.Distributed File System
D.Virtual Data Mover
Answer:C

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NO.11 ile systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs
D.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
Answer:B

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NO.12 You have decided to use the Automatic SavVol Extension. For a Celerra of 200 GB a SavVol with 20
GB is created.
What is the size of the next Automatic SavVol Extension when HWM is reached?
A.20 GB
B.20 MB
C.64 MB
D.64 GB
Answer:A

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NO.13 You are implementing a CIFS solution and will possibly be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS
dynamic configuration information is contained within the Virtual Data Mover?
A.Virus checker configuration
B.CIFS startup configuration
C.DFS root ID information
D.Share information
Answer:D

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NO.14 Which Celerra feature stores Windows SIDs correlated to UIDs and GIDs?
A.ntxmap
B.NASDB
C.secmap
D.SavVol
Answer:C

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NO.15 How does the Control Station access disk partitions on the back-end storage?
A.FC
B.NBS
C.iFCP
D.iSCSI
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which describes how a Usermapper client resolves a Windows SID to UNIX UID/GID?
A.Uses the resolution order defined in the Data Mover nsswitch.conf file
B.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for secmap cache on server_2
C.Uses the ntxmap.conf file first, then the Data Mover secmap cache
D.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for a primary or secondary Usermapper service
Answer:D

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NO.17 Which component of SnapSure identifies changed data blocks in the production file system?
A.Bitmap
B.Blockmap
C.Superblock
D.Inode
Answer:A

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NO.18 You have moved a VDM from one Data Mover to another. Now the users cannot access the data. What
could cause this condition?
A.Interface names are different to the source VDM.
B.The IP address on the target Data Mover is set before the move.
C.Target Data Mover sees all file systems of the source VDM.
D.You keep the same IP addresses.
Answer:A

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NO.19 How is Kerberos used within the Active Directory?
A.For user authentication
B.Provides encryption of stored user passwords
C.For time synchronization
D.Provides Dynamic DNS updates
Answer:A

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NO.20 A user needs to test new software with existing data stored on a Celerra file system that has
checkpoints. The Celerra administrator is asked to mount a SnapSure checkpoint from the file system to a
different Data Mover.
Can the administrator fulfill this request? Why or why not?
A.Yes, but only if the checkpoint is mounted read-only
B.Yes, but the checkpoint cannot be restored to the PFS
C.No, because the checkpoint relies on the PFS
D.No, because a writeable snap is required for testing
Answer:C

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Exam Code: E20-465
Exam Name: EMC (Content Management System Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 169 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-17

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NO.1 During the configuration of a repository you provide the following information: repository ID, repository
name, and database owner.
Where does Documentum store this information?
A. dfc.properties
B. server.ini
C. [repository name].ini
D. docbroker.ini
Answer: B

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NO.2 In addition to a supported OS, what is the minimal requirement for a successful Content Server
installation and repository configuration?
A. database software and Java SDK
B. Java SDK
C. database software, Java SDK, and application server
D. database software
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which specific directories do the DM_HOME and DOCUMENTUM environment variables represent in
a Content Server installation with one or more repositories?
A. DM_HOME is the base directory for all Content Server binaries and repository configurations;
DOCUMENTUM is the working directory used by server processes.
B. DM_HOME is the directory for the Content Server binaries; DOCUMENTUM is the base directory
under which all binaries and repository configurations are stored.
C. DM_HOME is the base directory under which all binaries and repository configurations are stored;
DOCUMENTUM is the directory for the Content Server binaries.
D. DM_HOME and DOCUMENTUM have the same value and point to the base directory for all server
binaries and repository configurations.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a resource agent?
A. It is a JMX-based monitoring tool that is accessible using Documentum Administrator.
B. It is a feature of Application Builder, used to help manage lifecycles.
C. It is a process used in conjunction with the Index Server to provide full-text indexing.
D. It is a feature of WDK which allows administrators to more easily deploy components given to them by
a developer.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the Consistency Checker?
A. to check for object corruption within the repository and provide a report
B. to check and correct object corruption within the repository and provide a report
C. to check the file stores for corruption and provide a report
D. to check the repository for corruption, fix the problem, and provide a report
Answer: A

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NO.6 By default, what is stored specifically in the DOCUMENTUM\dba\secure directory?
A. keystore(s) for certificates used by LDAP over SSL
B. encrypted database user passwords for repository owners
C. encrypted passphrase for the Content Server installation
D. keystores used for Trusted Content Services
Answer: C

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NO.7 A user is not able to create a document in a repository.
How do you diagnose the problem?
A. check for sufficient swap space/virtual memory and check for sufficient database space
B. check for sufficient file storage space and check for sufficient database space
C. check for sufficient file storage space and check for sufficient swap space/virtual memory
D. check that the server log is not full
Answer: B

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NO.8 When installing the Content Server, the installer deploys several default services which run on the
Java Method Server.
Which services are deployed?
A. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS), Documentum
Messaging Services (DMS)
B. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
C. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Documentum Messaging Services (DMS), Documentum
Foundation Services (DFS)
D. Documentum Foundation Services (DFS), Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS)
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the correct API syntax for retrieving the r_object_id of a dm_document with the name, 'test1'?
A. retrieve,c,dm_folder where object_name='test1'
B. id,c,select dm_sysobject where object_name='test1'
C. retrieve,c,select dm_document where object_name='test1'
D. id,c,dm_sysobject where object_name='test1'
Answer: D

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NO.10 Your repository dump has just completed. <DUMP_RECORD_OBJECT_ID> is the object id of your
dm_dump_record.
Which DQL statement would you run to determine how many repository objects were copied into your
dump file?
A. select count(*) from dmi_dump_object_record where dump_object =
'<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
B. select count(*) from dm_sysobject where r_object_id in (select <DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID> from
dm_dump_record)
C. select count(*) from dm_dump_record where dump_object = '<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
D. select count(*) from dmr_content where r_object_id = '<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
Answer: A

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NO.11 When using a resource agent to view a log, which option CANNOT be used to sort the log entries?
A. Log level
B. Event type
C. Severity
D. From the first entry to the last entry
Answer: B

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NO.12 What must exist in an API script to dump your repository?
A. dump,c,dmr_content
B. dump,c,dmr_containment
C. create,c,dmi_dump_object_record
D. create,c,dm_dump_record
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which statement is FALSE regarding resource agents?
A. Resource agents allow you to specify a minimum log level to view.
B. Resource agents allow you to change configuration settings.
C. Resource agents provide another way to receive notifications.
D. Resource agents cannot execute operations.
Answer: D

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NO.14 After installing the Content Server, you change the default passphrase.
What utility script must be run when the Content Server is restarted?
A. dm_check_password
B. dm_crypto_boot
C. dm_crypto_create
D. dm_change_password
Answer: B

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NO.15 A repository has an installation owner account 'dmadmin' and a repository owner account 'sop.'
What is the difference between these two accounts?
A. The Documentum installation owner and the repository owner accounts have identical roles.
B. The Documentum installation owner is a regular user in a repository; the repository owner has
administrative rights over the repository.
C. The Documentum installation owner is a superuser in the repository; the repository owner account
owns the database tables used by the repository.
D. While both users have administration privileges, the installation owner owns the repository database
tables.
Answer: C

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NO.16 A user has left your company. There is an object that is still checked out by that user.
How would you remove the lock from this document?
A. delete the user using Documentum Administrator and all the documents checked out to this user will
automatically have the lock removed
B. change the r_lock_owner attribute of the document to "dmadmin"; dmadmin will now own the
document and can cancel checkout
C. unlock the document using the API
D. check the document in using a superuser account
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are the minimal user account settings and access rights needed by the designated BOF Global
Registry user?
A. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the /System/Modules/SBO folder in the
repository.
B. The user has an OS or Directory Server account and has READ only access to the
/System/Modules/SBO folder in the repository.
C. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the /System/Modules/SBO folder and
the folders/documents in the repository that will be accessed using SBOs.
D. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the entire repository.
Answer: A

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NO.18 What are the minimum prerequisite components for a Documentum Administrator installation on a
dedicated application server host?
A. database client, application server, and Java SDK
B. application server, Java SDK, and web server
C. application server and Java SDK
D. application server, Java SDK, PHP, and Perl
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which user account will be used when running the Repository Configuration program?
A. superuser
B. installation owner
C. web user
D. database user
Answer: B

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NO.20 How do you delete a repository?
A. use Documentum Administrator to delete the files used for the repository's tablespaces
B. use Documentum Server Manager
C. select Configuration > Repository option in Documentum Administrator
D. use any database utility to drop the tablespaces used by the repository
Answer: B

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