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2014年8月4日星期一

050-80-CASECURID01 Free download, 050-80-CASECURID01 Exam Prep

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NO.1 If a user is seeking help after receiving an 'Access Denied' message, which Security Console
function would help locate the activity?
A. Reporting
B. Token record
C. User activation record
D. Administrative Activity Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.2 If an administrator creates a new administrative user,
A. by default, the new administrator must use a SecurID token to log in.
B. the administrator creating the new user must have at least a Super Admin role.
C. by default, the new user has permissions identical to the administrator creating the new user.
D. permissions granted to the new user can not exceed those of the administrator creating the new
user.
Answer: D

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6. If a user is NOT a member of an Authentication Manager user group, which of the following
statements is true?
A. The user can not be restricted to certain login times.
B. The user can not be forced to adhere to password polices.
C. The user can not take advantage of Risk-Based authentication.
D. The user can not log on to an unrestricted Authentication Agent.
Answer: A

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7. Of the following RSA Authentication Manager components, which one is most likely to be
located in a network DMZ?
A. Web Tier
B. Risk Engine
C. Replica Server
D. Authentication Agent
Answer: A

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8. Token expiration dates;
A. Appear on the token display thirty days prior to expiration.
B. Are programmed into a token record at the time of manufacture.
C. Vary according to the date set by the administrator when assigning the token.
D. Depend on the clock in the Authentication Agent to determine if the token is active.
Answer: B

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9. Which of the following services is NOT an option to users through the Self-Service Console?
A. Changing a password or PIN
B. Creating an individual PIN policy
C. Requesting a replacement token
D. Resynchronizing an RSA SecurID token
Answer: B

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10. Can multiple Identity Sources be established from the same LDAP directory?
A. Yes, if the mapped Organizational Units (OUs) do not overlap.
B. Yes, if duplicate attribute values do not exist in the LDAP directory.
C. No - only one LDAP directory can be mapped to one Identity Source.
D. Yes, if no duplicate passwords exist in the LDAP directory (unique password for each user).
Answer: A

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NO.3 A user who is enabled for Risk-Based Authentication will likely be associated with what other
authentication method?
A. PIN-less SecurID token.
B. On-Demand Authentication.
C. Emergency Access Passcode.
D. Digital Certificate Authentication.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When adding a new Authentication Agent record to the RSA Authentication Manager database,
an attempt is made to resolve the hostname of the Agent Host with its IP Address. If the attempt
fails,
A. the administrator can override the hostname/IP Address by using the Auto-Registration option.
B. the Agent is added to the database with a 'Pending' status until it is first used for a successful
authentication.
C. a warning is given that the hostname/IP Address cannot be resolved but the database will allow
the Agent to be added.
D. the administrator must correct the address resolution through DNS or editing the /etc/hosts file
before the Agent can be added to the database.
Answer: C

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NO.5 If all users are denied access when they attempt to authenticate to an RSA Authentication
Manager instance, the problem might be that
A. the licensed number of users has been exceeded.
B. the Authentication Manager services are not running.
C. all Agent node secrets have been cleared by the users.
D. the Super Admin administrator has left the instance in debug mode.
Answer: B

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2014年6月5日星期四

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NO.1 Enabling the system parameter option "Store time of last login in token records"
A. increases authentication performance.
B. is required in order for Lock Manager to prevent replay attacks.
C. is required for accurate "Last Login" information in a Token Report.
D. only applies if the Agent Host is using the RSA ACE/Agent 5.0 Authentication Protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In Authentication Manager version 7.1 terminology, a "Server Node" is used to
A. Replicate the database in either a Primary or Replica instance cluster.
B. Gather and re-direct authentication requests from Agents to an available server.
C. Provide a stand-alone database available to either a Primary or Replica instance.
D. Provide additional authentication services in either a Primary or Replica instance cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The Offline Authentication feature is intended to allow
A. the capability for a user to temporarily disable the Agent software while the user is working
offline.
B. an RSA SecurID authentication to be processed by a Replica server when the Primary server
is offline.
C. a user to complete an RSA SecurID authentication through the local Agent if the local
Agent computer is offline.
D. several users to use a single RSA SecurID token so that they can share another user's
computer if their own computer is offline.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a component of the technology used within an RSA SecurID
token?
A. algorithm B.
private key C.
time source D.
seed record
Answer: B

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NO.5 In a Primary/Replica environment, administrative changes can be made only on a server in the
Primary instance.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 To activate a Group on an Agent Host in another RSA ACE/Server Realm, you would
A. enable External Authorization.
B. edit the Realm Secret of the Agent Host.
C. mark the Agent Host "Open to All Locally Known Users".
D. duplicate the Agent Host record in the Group's home Realm.
Answer: D

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2014年5月27日星期二

050-SEPROGRC-01 Real Exams, 050-ENVCSE01 Exam Cram, 050-80-CASECURID01 VCE Dumps

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NO.1 Administrators can access features on the Administration tab to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Create new records
B. Configure questionnaires
C. Add new fields to applications
D. Change the colors of the system
Answer: A

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NO.2 How many databases are needed to support the RSA Archer Platform?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. One database is needed for every application created in the system.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Preferences menu in the top frame of the system allows users to do all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Select workspaces for display
B. Update user profile information
C. Subscribe to email notifications
D. Update records within applications
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Audit Management solution includes audit-related applications as well as a set of
applications related to what other area?
A. Risk Management
B. Vendor Management
C. Staffing Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C

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7. The Business Continuity Management solution also includes applications that address which
two of the following issues? (Choose two)
A. Crisis Events
B. Evidence Gathered
C. Disaster Recovery
D. Incident Management
E. Investigations In Progress
Answer: A,C

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8. The Compliance Management solution readily interacts with all of the following RSA Archer
solutions EXCEPT:
A. Risk Management
B. Policy Management
C. Incident Management
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: C

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9. The Enterprise Management solution is split into which two sub-solutions?
A. Asset Management and Company Hierarchy
B. Business Infrastructure and Enterprise Hierarchy
C. Organizational Structure and Asset Management
D. Business Hierarchy and Enterprise Infrastructure
Answer: D

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10. The Incident Management solution uses which application as its central starting point?
A. Contacts
B. Incidents
C. Investigations
D. Response Procedures
Answer: B

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NO.5 When a notification isn't received as expected, it is likely something is configured incorrectly in:
A. The Notification Reports
B. The configuration database
C. The notification template itself
D. The application supporting the notification
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the minimum operating system requirement for the RSA Archer Web Server?
A. Microsoft Windows 2000 Server
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 R2
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
Answer: B

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2014年4月10日星期四

RSA 050-V40-ENVCSE02 exam study materials

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NO.1 Which of the log data collection methods listed below do NOT require the configuration of a service
before RSA enVision can recognize a device using that collection method? (Choose two)
A. Syslog
B. ODBC
C. SNMP
D. Log file FTP
E. Checkpoint LEA API
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Within the RSA enVision console, what should you reference to determine if enVision's standard reports
pertain to the Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) or the BASEL II standards?
A. The VAM assessment control panel under the 'Compliance >> Standards' tab.
B. The enVision administrative interface which, by default, includes both SOX and BASEL II reports.
C. The Best Practices tool section of the 'Overview' tab which provides an overview with links to...
D. The Compliance Report Filter (CRF) which can be downloaded from the RSA enVision Support...
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following describes the timestamp that is shown in the Event Viewer Date/Time field?
A. The timestamp is from the source device for that event.
B. The timestamp is from the enVision collector that is prepended to the event.
C. The timestamp indicates the time the event was first viewed in Event Viewer.
D. The timestamp indicates the elapsed time between event origination and capture.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In general, RSA enVision's security information and event management functions include which of the
following? (Choose two)
A. Storage of log data.
B. Collection of log data.
C. Distribution of log data.
D. Filtering of regulatory log data.
E. Selective rule-based log deletion.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Assuming that a <device>msg.xml file exists for a device and a collected log message has a match in
the <device>msg.xml, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. The device is a supported device.
B. The LEA client service must be installed.
C. The ODBC standard database access method is being used.
D. The message can be parsed to the appropriate enVision database table.
E. The device is probably producing logs in the Unix syslog or SNMP format.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 What is the primary difference between the LC5 and LC10 local collector units?
A. Base storage capacity.
B. Events Per Second (EPS) capability.
C. Physical size and weight of the units.
D. Type of Database Server to which they may be attached.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The exhibit shows block diagrams describing an enVision LS Site with a Database Server (D-SRV),
Application Server (A-SRV), and two Local Collector (LC1 and LC2) components. Which diagram shows
the correct arrangement?
A. Diagram A
B. Diagram
B C. Diagram C
D. Diagram D
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about the RSA enVision ES Series appliance is NOT true?
A. The ES Series supports options for external data storage.
B. The ES Series is designed to operate in a stand-alone non-distributed mode.
C. The ES Series contains all three RSA enVision functional components in a single appliance.
D. The ES Series consists of three appliances each providing collection, data management, and analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The RSA enVision Event Viewer displays information from what source?
A. Packager "nuggets".
B. NIC Reader Service database.
C. Report RDB relational database.
D. Internet Protocol Database (IPDB).
Answer: D

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NO.10 In RSA enVision architecture, what best defines an enVision "Domain"?
A. One or more Sites working together.
B. The set of servers that make up a Master site.
C. The set of Collectors (local and remote) within one Windows domain.
D. All network information events collected from a single Windows domain.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 050-SEPROGRC-01
Exam Name: RSA (RSA Certified SE Professional in Governance, Risk and Compliance)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-10

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NO.1 The Preferences menu in the top frame of the system allows users to do all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Select workspaces for display
B. Update user profile information
C. Subscribe to email notifications
D. Update records within applications
Answer: D

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NO.2 When a notification isn't received as expected, it is likely something is configured incorrectly in:
A. The Notification Reports
B. The configuration database
C. The notification template itself
D. The application supporting the notification
Answer: C

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NO.3 Administrators can access features on the Administration tab to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Create new records
B. Configure questionnaires
C. Add new fields to applications
D. Change the colors of the system
Answer: A

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NO.4 How many databases are needed to support the RSA Archer Platform?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. One database is needed for every application created in the system.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Audit Management solution includes audit-related applications as well as a set of
applications related to what other area?
A. Risk Management
B. Vendor Management
C. Staffing Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C

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two of the following issues? (Choose two)
A. Crisis Events
B. Evidence Gathered
C. Disaster Recovery
D. Incident Management
E. Investigations In Progress
Answer: A,C

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solutions EXCEPT:
A. Risk Management
B. Policy Management
C. Incident Management
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: C

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A. Asset Management and Company Hierarchy
B. Business Infrastructure and Enterprise Hierarchy
C. Organizational Structure and Asset Management
D. Business Hierarchy and Enterprise Infrastructure
Answer: D

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A. Contacts
B. Incidents
C. Investigations
D. Response Procedures
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the minimum operating system requirement for the RSA Archer Web Server?
A. Microsoft Windows 2000 Server
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 R2
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
Answer: B

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2014年3月26日星期三

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Exam Code: 050-V37
Exam Name: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
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Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-26

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NO.1 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.2 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.3 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.4 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.5 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.6 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.7 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.8 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.9 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.10 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.11 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.12 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.13 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.14 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.15 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.16 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.17 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.18 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.19 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.20 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 050-V71-CASECURID02
Exam Name: RSA (RSA SecurID Certified Administrator 7.1 Exam)
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NO.1 A user is trying to authenticate from their workstation to the RSA Authentication Manager but receives
an "Access Denied" message. The Server's log is showing the following error message: "Node secret
mismatch". What is a likely cause?
A. The sdconf.rec is missing from the Agent machine.
B. The user is not allowed to authenticate on that Agent.
C. The Agent has not been added into the Server database.
D. The secret key used to encrypt Agent communication has been deleted.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Three consecutive log entries for one user contain the message "Authentication Method Failed", what
administrative action would NOT be appropriate?
A. resynchronize the token
B. set the user's PIN to Next Tokencode
C. assign a temporary Fixed Passcode for troubleshooting
D. check the system time of the RSA Authentication Manager host
Answer: B

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NO.3 An RSA Authentication Manager is licensed for 500 users. The license must be upgraded if you want
to
A. assign more than 500 tokens to individual users.
B. import more than 500 token records into the database.
C. import more than 500 users from an LDAP directory source.
D. allow cross-realm authentication for more than 500 remote users.
Answer: A

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NO.4 When creating and running RSA Authentication Manager version 7.1 reports, the administrator has the
option of (Choose two)
A. allowing the report to run with the scope of the administrator who is running the report.
B. defining report criteria by writing an SQL query to extract data directly from the database.
C. customizing a report template by adding and removing columns and applying data filters.
D. creating and running reports from a Replica database server if the Primary server is down.
E. previewing the report output before the report is run to make sure the desired data is included.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 If the RSA Authentication Manager places a token into Next Tokencode Mode, and the user waits for
three minutes (three tokencode increments) to enter his/her next tokencode, what will be the expected
result?
A. The Server will not accept the value because it is not sequential.
B. The authentication will be successful even though the input was delayed.
C. The Server will ask for a third tokencode, so that it has two sequential codes.
D. The Server will assume that the token has been stolen, and disable the token.
Answer: A

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NO.6 If a Super Admin administrator can view a certain set of user records in the Authentication Manager
database but a Help Desk administrator can not,
A. the Help Desk administrator should be assigned a Super Admin role.
B. the Super Admin administrator's privileges should be set to 'delegatable'.
C. the Help Desk administrator scope may not allow viewing of these users.
D. this would be considered a normal difference between these two types of administrators.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A feature of the RADIUS protocol is
A. the ability to track a user's login and logout time (RADIUS accounting).
B. the computer time setting can be checked remotely (remote time service).
C. a user's default login name becomes their password (RADIUS login synchronization).
D. the user Profile and Attribute Value Pair matches their tokencode (RADIUS token matching).
Answer: A

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NO.8 How many RSA Authentication Manager servers can be in a single Instance (maximum) under an
Enterprise license?
A. 1 database server and a single Server Node
B. 1 Primary server and up to 3 Replica servers
C. 1 database server and up to 4 Server Nodes
D. 1 Primary server and up to 15 Replica servers
Answer: C

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NO.9 RSA Authentication audit log records
A. can be archived using a scheduled job.
B. are only accessible by the Super Admin administrator.
C. are always deleted from the database when they are archived.
D. can be digitally signed by the administrator for archival storage protection.
Answer: A

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NO.10 If multiple users request On-demand Tokencodes but are not receiving them, you would want to
confirm that
A. the users are not in New PIN mode.
B. SMS or SMTP services are configured correctly.
C. the tokens assigned to the users have not expired.
D. the tokens assigned to the users have been resynchronized.
Answer: B

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NO.11 RSA SecurID tokens are initially supplied with matching token records. After tokens are assigned,
deployed and used by end-users, what information might be overwritten if the original token records are
re-imported into the RSA Authentication Manager database.? (Choose two)
A. user assignment
B. tokencode values
C. Authentication Agent usage
D. token time offset information
E. system PIN parameter settings
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 When assigning a user a Temporary Fixed Tokencode to replace a lost token, what is the default value
for the expiration period of that Tokencode?
A. 24 hours
B. 5 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C

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NO.13 Authenticators should NOT be shared by multiple users because of
A. license concerns.
B. hostname conflicts.
C. database restrictions.
D. repudiation concerns.
Answer: D

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NO.14 An RSA SecurID tokencode is unique for each successful authentication because
A. a token periodically calculates a new code
B. the user continuously changes their secret PIN
C. the Node Secret is updated after each authentication
D. the Server's clock is set to Universal Coordinated Time (UTC)
Answer: A

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NO.15 A user reports a problem while trying to authenticate. The administrator checks recent activities and
sees that the last message associated with this user is "New Pin Cancelled." What is the most likely
cause?
A. The user is not in New PIN mode.
B. The user is not in the server database.
C. The user did not complete the New PIN operation successfully.
D. The user is not authorized to authenticate through this Authentication Agent.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Operation between Windows, Linux and UNIX platforms is supported by RSA Authentication Manager
for which types of communications? (Choose two)
A. Agent to Server
B. Database Replication
C. Primary to Replica Server
D. Trusted Realm authentication
E. Database server to Server Node
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 If a group has been defined with access times of 9 AM to 5 PM, Monday through Friday. When can a
member of that group log in?
A. at any time but must renew their login at 9 AM each day
B. during the specified time frame, but must log out by 5 PM
C. during that time frame and can remain logged in indefinitely
D. during that time frame but is automatically logged out at 5 PM
Answer: C

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NO.18 The RSA Authentication Manager has settings where (by default) three incorrect PASSCODES will
invoke Next Tokencode Mode. Where is this configuration setting located?
A. Within the Setup menu.
B. Within the Identity menu.
C. Within the Polices menu.
D. Within the RADIUS menu.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are assisting a user who is working offline on a Microsoft Windows Authentication Agent. If you
provide this user with an Offline Emergency Passcode, you must tell the user
A. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID token passcode without using a PIN.
B. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but continue to use the existing PIN.
C. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but you will also issue a temporary
replacement PIN.
D. to first enter their Windows password and, when prompted for the Emergency Access Code, enter the
code that you provide.
Answer: A

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NO.20 An RSA Authentication Manager administrator would edit an Identity Attribute parameter
A. to ignore users with duplicate user names.
B. to store additional user information in a user record.
C. to specify an LDAP Bind DN and Bind DN password.
D. when the LDAP server is not in the same domain as the RSA Authentication Manager server.
Answer: B

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NO.1 If an administrator creates a new administrative user,
A. by default, the new administrator must use a SecurID token to log in.
B. the administrator creating the new user must have at least a Super Admin role.
C. by default, the new user has permissions identical to the administrator creating the new user.
D. permissions granted to the new user can not exceed those of the administrator creating the new
user.
Answer: D

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6. If a user is NOT a member of an Authentication Manager user group, which of the following
statements is true?
A. The user can not be restricted to certain login times.
B. The user can not be forced to adhere to password polices.
C. The user can not take advantage of Risk-Based authentication.
D. The user can not log on to an unrestricted Authentication Agent.
Answer: A

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7. Of the following RSA Authentication Manager components, which one is most likely to be
located in a network DMZ?
A. Web Tier
B. Risk Engine
C. Replica Server
D. Authentication Agent
Answer: A

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8. Token expiration dates;
A. Appear on the token display thirty days prior to expiration.
B. Are programmed into a token record at the time of manufacture.
C. Vary according to the date set by the administrator when assigning the token.
D. Depend on the clock in the Authentication Agent to determine if the token is active.
Answer: B

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9. Which of the following services is NOT an option to users through the Self-Service Console?
A. Changing a password or PIN
B. Creating an individual PIN policy
C. Requesting a replacement token
D. Resynchronizing an RSA SecurID token
Answer: B

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10. Can multiple Identity Sources be established from the same LDAP directory?
A. Yes, if the mapped Organizational Units (OUs) do not overlap.
B. Yes, if duplicate attribute values do not exist in the LDAP directory.
C. No - only one LDAP directory can be mapped to one Identity Source.
D. Yes, if no duplicate passwords exist in the LDAP directory (unique password for each user).
Answer: A

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NO.2 If a user is seeking help after receiving an 'Access Denied' message, which Security Console
function would help locate the activity?
A. Reporting
B. Token record
C. User activation record
D. Administrative Activity Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.3 If all users are denied access when they attempt to authenticate to an RSA Authentication
Manager instance, the problem might be that
A. the licensed number of users has been exceeded.
B. the Authentication Manager services are not running.
C. all Agent node secrets have been cleared by the users.
D. the Super Admin administrator has left the instance in debug mode.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When adding a new Authentication Agent record to the RSA Authentication Manager database,
an attempt is made to resolve the hostname of the Agent Host with its IP Address. If the attempt
fails,
A. the administrator can override the hostname/IP Address by using the Auto-Registration option.
B. the Agent is added to the database with a 'Pending' status until it is first used for a successful
authentication.
C. a warning is given that the hostname/IP Address cannot be resolved but the database will allow
the Agent to be added.
D. the administrator must correct the address resolution through DNS or editing the /etc/hosts file
before the Agent can be added to the database.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A user who is enabled for Risk-Based Authentication will likely be associated with what other
authentication method?
A. PIN-less SecurID token.
B. On-Demand Authentication.
C. Emergency Access Passcode.
D. Digital Certificate Authentication.
Answer: B

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2014年3月7日星期五

050-V70-CSEDLPS02 exam study guide

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NO.1 Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0
Enterprise Manager installation program?
A. Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B. Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C. Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of DLP Network Sensors, Interceptors, and ICAP
Servers that can be managed by one DLP Network Controller?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. It depends on the license that has been purchased.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Automatic remediation actions can be configured in policy DLP Datacenter
policies in DLP release 7.0 and later releases.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following endpoint actions can be detected, audited or blocked by the
DLP Endpoint Enforcement Agent? (Choose two)
A. Screen capture
B. Printing to a file
C. Bluetooth File transfer
D. Copying to a floppy disk or hard drive
E. Copying a file from one network share to another network share
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? (Choose two)
A. Existing policies may be reordered.
B. Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies
created to replace them.
C. The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be
purchased from RSA .
D. Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan
results and requiring a full scan.
E. Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually
disabled or enabled without affecting the other sections.
Answer: A, E

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