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Exam Code: LOT-825
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 6 Deployment and Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 .In planning to utilize collaboration components, the existing Quickplace server utilizes a central
LDAP directory based on Lotus Domino. Both the Quickplace and the LDAP server are accessed
via SSL. Which of the following is correct if you wish to enable an IBM Lotus Sametime server
into the environment?
A. Sametime must utilize SSL and must point to its own local directory
B. Sametime has the option of using SSL and must point to its own local directory
C. Sametime must utilize SSL and point to the same directory that Quickplace accesses
D. Sametime has the option of using SSL and point to the same directory that Quickplace
accesses
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Dana, a Portal user, is a member of multiple virtual portals in her company.
Within the virtual portals and PAC, you have made restrictions on what is visible, including
scoping
resources. Which of the following Portal resources may not be controlled in this manner?
A. Portlets
B. Web modules
C. Portlet Applications
D. Composite applications
Answer: D

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NO.3 .ReleaseBuilder enables management of release configurations independent of which of the
following?
A. XML configurations
B. User configurations
C. Staged configurations
D. Generation configurations
Answer: B

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NO.4 .The company developers have provided you a new portlet for deployment in your company's
Portal cluster. Which of the following is the correct way to deploy the portlet to the cluster?
A. Deploy theportlet to one Portal cluster member in the cell with identical configurations
B. Deploy theportlet to the Deployment Manager specifying which cluster should receive the new
portlet
C. Deploy theportlet to one Portal cluster member in the cell and let it propagate and run
wpsconfig to activate the portlet
D. Manually update the Deployment Managerwmcluster.xml file to include the new portlet name
and to which Portal cluster it should be deployed
Answer: C

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NO.5 .When utilizing the IBM Portlet API, which of the following is valid regarding Cooperative Portlets?
A. They cannot use Click-to-Action
B. They support chained propagation of data
C. They cannot broadcast properties to all targetportlets at one time
D. They can only use wires to pass properties from sourceportlets to target portlets
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal cloning and vertical
clustering?
A. Vertical clustering takes advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system; horizontal
cloning allows for upward scalability
B. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources; horizontal
cloning allows multiple servers to act as one server
C. Horizontal cloning replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering takes
advantage of multiple Websphere servers as a single cell
D. Horizontal cloning allows multiple HTTP servers to server in a failover scenario; vertical
clustering allows Portal servers to combine processor and memory into one virtual server
Answer: A

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NO.7 .As the Portal administrator, you are exporting and transferring a document library from a staging
system to a production system. You have successfully created an empty shared directory to hold
the exported document library. Both the staging and production servers have write access to the
shared directory. When you move the document library from the staging system to the production
system, which of the following occurs to private drafts?
A. They are converted to submitted drafts
B. They are transferred without modifications
C. They will all be converted to the same UUID
D. They are appended a new document version number
Answer: B

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NO.8 .Portlets can write message and trace information to log files to assist the portal administrator to
investigate portlet errors and special conditions and help the portlet developer test and debug
portlets. In which of the following locations are these logs maintained?
A. <app_server_root>/logs
B. <portal_server_root>/log/
C. <websphere_root>/portal/log
D. <app_server_root>/trace/logs
Answer: B

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NO.9 .The business units of your enterprise have needs for their own portals. However, the demand on
server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, your enterprise
chose virtual portals. Which of the following are available across each of the virtual portals?
A. Portal search
B. Document management
C. Portal propertyfile definitions
D. Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Answer: D

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NO.10 .You are utilizing ReleaseBuilder to stage configurations between two releases.
You are tracking which configuration entities were removed, added or changed compared to the
previous release. Which of the following are created to detect deviations between one
configuration and another?
A. Staged updates
B. Deletion updates
C. Differential updates
D. Configuration updates
Answer: C

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NO.11 Your WebSphere Portal environment is supposed to access a remote LDAP directory that is
supported by another group in your organization. However, they will not allow changes to be
made to their LDAP directory structure. Portal has requirements that cannot be met by their
structure. Which of the following is the best possible solution?
A. Do not utilize the remote LDAP directory and create a local Cloudscape directory
B. Utilize the remote LDAP directory and disable all features that require customization
C. Utilize the remote LDAP directory and create aLookaside database for additional profile
information
D. Copy the remote LDAP directory into a local LDAP source and make the necessary
customization needed to utilize the local source
Answer: C

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NO.12 Members of a WebSphere Portal cluster exist on multiple physical machines to distribute the
workload of a single logical WebSphere Portal image. What is this called?
A. Vertical scaling
B. Horizontal scaling
C. Multi-machine design
D. HTTP server separation
Answer: B

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NO.13 .Composite applications can be defined by which of the following?
A. A group of applications that share a common theme
B. A list of applications available to the personalization server
C. A cluster ofWebSphere Portal servers that share a common database
D. A compiled set of components that address a particular business need
Answer: D

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NO.14 Particular Portal productivity editors in the Document Manager portlet need to be disabled. Which
of the following tasks must be performed?
A. UsePortlet Management to edit the properties of the Productivity editors portlet application
B. Select the Edit link on the Document managerportlet and uncheck the editors that must be
disabled
C. Select the Design link on the Document managerportlet and uncheck the editors that must be
disabled
D. Use the Manage Document Librariesportlet, select the Configure link and uncheck the editors
that must be disabled
Answer: C

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NO.15 .Margaret is in the process of copying a finance portlet application using the administrative pages.
Which of the following is true regarding the portlet data and portlet application data when copied?
A. Theportlet application data and the portlet data are copied from the original portlet
B. Theportlet application and portlet are copied, but all the parameters are left blank for
configuration by the administrator
C. Theportlet application parameters are copied from the original application, but the portlet
parameters are left blank in the copied portlet
D. Theportlet application parameters are left blank since this is a new version of the portlet, but
the portlet parameters are copied from the original portlet
Answer: A

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NO.16 .In which of the following circumstances will a Consumer use the XML configuration interface to
create a Producer when utilizing Web Services for Remote Portlets?
A. When the Consumer is offline
B. Every time that a Consumer needs to create a Producer
C. A Consumer does not create a Producer using the XML configuration interface
D. When there is no Web Services Definition Language document available to the Consumer
Answer: A

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NO.17 .Which of the following statements BEST describes how WebSphere Portal's functionality is
implemented on the WebSphere Application Server?
A. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a Web Application on the WebSphere Application Server
B. WebSphere Portal runs as an Enterprise Application on the WebSphere Application Server
C. WebSphere Portal runs a servlet within the WebSphere Application Server's Web Container
D. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server's Web Container
Answer: B

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NO.18 .In order to implement a highly available END-TO-END security solution for a production portal
environment, which of the following sets of components would be most useful?
A. Netegrity SiteMinder, Credentials vault, Dynamic Cache, Deployment Manager hot standby
B. Tivoli Access Manager, Load Balancing Edge component, Portal Cluster, LDAP server cluster
C. Tivoli Access Manager, Portal Cluster, Credential vault, Network-Attached Storage devices
D. Tivoli Access Manager,Netegrity SiteMinder, WebSphere Information Integrator, LDAP server
cluster
Answer: B

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NO.19 A common portlet is available to multiple virtual portals. However, you do not wish the marketing
virtual portal to utilize a PIM portlet. Which of the following offers the ability to restrict the portlet
from the marketing virtual portal users?
A. Portal Access Control
B. Portlet Security Control
C. Virtual Portal Restriction
D. Websphere Member Manager
Answer: A

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NO.20 .Constance, a Portal user, is noticing that a portlet she utilizes takes a long time to render. Data is
drawn from other portlets, some of which access remote data. Which of the following can the
administrator implement to help reduce the time Constance waits for the portlet?
A. Portal clustering
B. Real-time database access
C. Parallelportlet rendering
D. Synchronousportlet transfer
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-103
Exam Name: IBM (AIX 6.1 Basic Operations)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 An operator needs to replace all the occurrences of the string '/home/user1' in the current file using vi
with '/home1/user2'. Which of the following sub-commands will achieve this?
A. :1,$ s:/home/user1./home1/user2.g
B. :1,$ s\/home/user1\/home1/user2\/g
C. :1,$ s\/\/home\/user1\/\/home1\/user2\/g
D. :1,$ s/\\/home\\/user1/\\/home1\\/user2/g
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following commands will display what space is used in /tmp filesystem?
A. df -Ik /tmp
B. df -fk /tmp
C. df -Uk /tmp
D. df -Fk /tmp
Answer: A

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NO.3 The printer associated with the hp5_queue is down for maintenance.
Which of the following commands will move the remaining print jobs from hp5_queue to the hp7_queue?
A. export $LPDEST=hp7_queue
B. qmov -m hp7_queue -P hp5_queue
C. lpmov -s hp5_queue -d hp7_queue
D. redirect -q hp5_queue hp7_queue
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following will rename dir1 as dir2?
A. mv dir1 dir2
B. ren dir1 dir2
C. cp -R dir1 dir2
D. mv -R dir1 dir2
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which command enables a user to exit the vi editor, overwriting the existing file without prompting for
confirmation?
A. :w
B. :qw
C. :x!
D. :we!
Answer: C

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NO.6 An operator is trying to perform an immediate power down of an AIX LPAR using the 'shutdown -k'
command. The cursor has returned to the command prompt, but no shutdown activities are showing on
the screen after more than one minute.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The /etc/rc.shutdown script is missing.
B. The bos.rte.control fileset has become corrupted.
C. The operator UID is not a member of the shutdown group.
D. The -k flag against the shutdown command only broadcast the shutdown message.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A user is complaining that their display does not look correct. When the operator has the user run the
command 'echo $TERM' the result is 'ascii', however, the /etc/environment file contains the line 'export
TERM=vt100'. What is the likely cause of this difference?
A. The user is not using a VT100 terminal
B. The user's login shell is set to sh instead of ksh
C. The user's .profile resets the TERM environment variable
D. The /etc/profile file sets the TERM environment variable to 'ascii'
Answer: C

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NO.8 An operator needs to run a script which will write standard output and standard error to different files.
Which of the following commands will successfully perform this task?
A. myscript.ksh 1>/tmp/log/script.log 2>/tmp/log/script.err
B. myscript.ksh $1>/tmp/log/script.log $2>/tmp/log/script.err
C. myscript.ksh 1>/tmp/log/script.log 2>&1 /tmp/log/script/err
D. myscript.ksh 2>&1 /tmp/log/script.log 2> /tmp/log/script.err
Answer: A

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NO.9 During heavy system resources usage, and administrator detects that the top processes are from the
user 'webapp'. The operator needs to check all the running processes from that user to analyze them.
Which command can retrieve that information in a single step?
A. puser webapp
B. ps -fu webapp
C. proc -uid webapp
D. fuser /dev/webapp
Answer: B

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NO.10 An operator has been asked if a system was rebooted. Which of the following commands should be
used to determine if a reboot has occurred?
A. The name?command.The ?name?command.
B. The ptime?command.The ?ptime?command.
C. The hutdown ast?command.The ?hutdown ?ast?command.
D. The ?etc/rc.shutdown?command.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The operator is viewing a file using 'more'. What subcommand can be used to exit before reaching
the end of the file?
A. q
B. :w!
C. /quit
D. ctrl X
Answer: A

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NO.12 An operator needs to change from the /usr/bin to the /var/spool directory. Which of the following
commands will accomplish this?
A. cd /var/spool
B. lcd /var/spool
C. cd /usr/bin /var/spool
D. lcd /usr/bin /var/spool
Answer: A

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NO.13 An operator needs to schedule the script '/usr/scripts/listall.ksh' to run at 19.00 on the current day. What
is the correct form of the 'at' command to accomplish this task?
A. at 7 /usr/scripts/listall.ksh
B. at 7 P /usr/scripts/listall.ksh
C. at now + 7 /usr/scripts/listall.ksh
D. at today + 7 p /usr/scripts/listall.ksh
Answer: B

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NO.14 After performing a modification on the /etc/ssh/sshd_config file the operator needs to reinitialize the
secure shell daemon to enable the new settings. Which of the following is the correct way to achieve this?
A. Use refresh -s sshd
B. Use init.sshd /etc/rc.ssh
C. Use /usr/sbin/sshd -restart
D. Use stopsrc -s sshd and then startsrc -s sshd
Answer: D

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NO.15 An operator is in the middle of a file using 'more'. What subcommand can be used to go to previous
page in the file?
A. b
B. p
C. r
D. v
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M41
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Architecture Management Tech Sales Mastery v1)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What message is sent if user accepts a call?
A.ANSWER
B.SESSIONPROGRESS
C.200OK
D.180RINGINGWCourier NewArialZ
Answer: C

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NO.2 What SIP message is used to start a call?
A.REGISTER
B.INVITE
C.SESSIONSTART
D.SETUPWCourier NewArialZ
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following IPs are valid for a server?
A.192.168.120.65
B.33.254.120.265
C.192.168.120.0
D.192.168.120.261WCourier NewArialZ
Answer: A

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NO.4 How is speech transferred on call in SUT?
A.Between the phone and TCS server via special IP ports
B.As part of the signaling messages
C.Between both phones directly
D.Between the phones and the Media ServerWCourier NewArialZ
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statement is true?
A.ST Client uses only CSTA protocol to initiate a call via TAS
B.ST Client uses only BCOM protocol to initiate a call via TAS
C.ST Client uses BCOM and SIP protocols to initiate a call via TAS
D.ST Client uses only SIP protocol to initiate a call via TASWCourier NewArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

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Exam Code: I40-420
Exam Name: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 249 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 What is a user identifiable group of logically related data or control information referenced by the
application, but maintained within the boundary of another application?
A. An ILF
B. An IIF
C. An EIF
D. An ELF
Answer: C

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NO.2 Control information is defined as data that:
A. defines an elementary process of the application being counted
B. influences an elementary process of the application being counted
C. controls an elementary process of the application being counted
D. does not influence an elementary process of the application being counted
Answer: B

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NO.3 "Requirements specifically requested by the user to complete an elementary process" defines which of
the following terms?
A. Control information
B. Processing logic
C. Maintain
D. User identifiable
Answer: B

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NO.4 When counting DETs which of the following rules apply?
A. Count a DET for each recursive field on the ILF or EIF
B. Count a DET for each piece of data in an ILF or EIF required by the user to establish a relationship with
another ILF or EIF
C. Count a DET for each repeating field that is identical in format
D. Count a DET for each field that appears more than once in an ILF or EIF
Answer: B

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NO.5 An application FP count is defined as:
A. a measure of the current functions the application provides the user
B. the initial development project FP count
C. an enhancement project that alters the applications functions
D. the activity of applying this International Standard to measure the functional size of an application
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding the counting scope is true?
A. It defines the set of Functional User Requirements to be included in the FP count
B. It always includes more than one application
C. It determines the purpose of the applications being counted
D. It defines a (sub) set of the modules being sized
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements regarding functional size measurement is true?
A. Early functional size measurements can never change during design and coding phase
B. It is quite normal to identify additional functionality that was not specified in the original requirements in
the form of scope creep
C. It is not necessary to update the application functional size upon completion of an enhancement.
D. Both B and C
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about an External Input is true?
A. Has the primary intent to maintain one or more ILFs
B. An elementary process to hold data or control information from outside the boundary
C. Has the primary intent to alter the behavior of a transaction
D. Has the primary intent to reference one or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding an application functional size (FS)?
A. It provides a measure of the functionalities that an application provides to the user
B. It is never updated after the initial application installation
C. It is associated with an application's lifecycle
D. Both A and C
Answer: D

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NO.10 An example of the purpose of an FP count is to provide:
A. input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort to develop the first release of an
application
B. a comparison of functionality delivered by two different suppliers' packages
C. determine the size of an application as part of the organization's effort to determine the size of its
software portfolio
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.11 An EI is defined as:
A. an elementary process that processes data sent from outside the application boundary
B. control information sent from outside the user view
C. an elementary process that processes data or control information sent from outside the application's
boundary
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is an attribute used to represent relationships of one entity to another.?
A. Primary key
B. Secondary key
C. Foreign key
D. Domestic key
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following defines the purpose of a count?
A. Provides an answer to a business question, and it is the business question that determines the
purpose
B. Influences the positioning of the application between the software under review and the surrounding
software
C. Influences the type of FP count to answer the business problem under investigation
D. Provides an input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort required to develop
the first release of an application
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is NOT true of a boundary?
A. It encloses the logical data maintained by the application
B. It is the physical interface between the software under study and its users
C. It is dependent on the user's external business view of the application and is independent of technical
and/or implementation considerations
D. It defines what is external to the application
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is true about conversion functionality?
A. Transactional or data functions provided to convert data and /or provide other user specified
conversion requirements
B. Exists only during the development or enhancement of an application
C. Conversion functionality is outside the scope of FP counting
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which category (ies) of data entities is (are) usually identified to satisfy the Functional User
Requirements?
A. Business data
B. Reference data
C. Code data
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.17 The primary intent of an EI is to maintain:
A. One or more ILFs or alter the behavior of the application
B. One or more ILFs
C. One or more EIFs or alter the behavior of the application
D. One or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is a (are) valid example(s) of code data?
A. Substitution data
B. Static data
C. Valid values
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is an elementary process?
A. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
B. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
C. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
D. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is NOT an example of the purpose of a function point count?
A. To enable comparison of functionality delivered by two applications
B. To determine maintenance support cost per function point
C. To understand the percentage of lines of code that is being reused across three different applications
D. To determine the effort and duration of a development project
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 020-222
Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Health/Fitness Instructor Exam)
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Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 .Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury
to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient
safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything
possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
Answer: B

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NO.3 .Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Hydrodensitometry (hydrostatic weighing, underwater weighing) has several sources of error.
Which of the following is NOT a common source of error when using this technique to determine
body composition?
A. Measurement of the vital capacity of the lungs.
B. Interindividual variability in the amount of air in the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Interindividual variability in the density of the individual lean tissue compartment.
D. Measurement of the residual volume.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The definition of cardiorespiratory fitness is
A. The maximal force that a muscle or muscle group can generate in a single effort.
B. The coordinated capacity of the heart, blood vessels, respiratory system, and tissue metabolic
systems to take in, deliver, and use oxygen.
C. The ability to sustain a held maximal force or to continue repeated sub maximal contractions.
D. The functional ROM about a joint.
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having "increased risk"?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D

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NO.7 .Which of the following formulae is used for determining workload on a bicycle ergometer?
A. Belt length x resistance x grade.
B. Belt length x resistance x revolutions pedaled per minute.
C. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution x revolutions per minute.
D. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution.
Answer: C

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NO.8 .A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of
the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours
before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the
assessment.
Answer: A

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NO.9 .A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional
provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient's understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A

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NO.10 .A client's health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial "walk-through" showing of a facility.
Answer: B

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NO.11 .Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determinewhether to
conduct an assessment.
Answer: D

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NO.12 .Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female
client's muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A

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NO.13 .Adults age physiologically at individual rates. Therefore, adults of any specified age will vary
widely in their physiologic responses to exercise testing. Special consideration should be given to
older adults when giving a fitness test, because
A. Age is often accompanied by de conditioning and disease.
B. Age predisposes older adults to clinical depression and neurologic diseases.
C. Older adults cannot be physically stressed beyond 75% of age-adjusted maximum.
D. Older adults are not as motivated to exercise as those who are younger.
Answer: A

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NO.14 .During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40
seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
Answer: B

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NO.15 .A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent
resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol
of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SD0-101
Exam Name: SDI (Service Desk Analyst Qualification)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Consider your responsibilities as an SDA: which of these options best describes one of your principal
responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers to users questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your manager has told you that the Service Desk team must provide excellent customer service at all
times. As an SDA, what is the most important thing you must do to ensure that this happens?
A. Always show plenty of sympathy to the users
B. Always follow the procedures you understand best
C. Always reprimand colleagues who fail to deliver service excellence
D. Always listen to what users tell you
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managing users expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A

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NO.5 If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which option is NOT a characteristic of a successful team?
A. Trust is encouraged amongst team members
B. Support from senior management is received
C. League tables are published
D. Participation in the decision-making process is encouraged
Answer: C

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NO.7 A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the best way for an SDA to enhance the image of the Service Desk?
A. Dress to reflect your professionalism
B. Ensure users are aware that the Service Desk is the key component in IT
C. Provide accurate information to users without denigrating other teams
D. Advise users of resolutions via the weekly Service Desk email
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your team has confided
in you that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would you explain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure user satisfaction with
services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to meet delivery
of IT Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards of behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to the organisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of these options best describes a benefit of good teamwork?
A. There is always someone else to pick up any work you fail to do
B. There is commitment to team decisions
C. There is a specialist for each product or service
D. There is less need for person-to-person communication
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the IT organisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.14 Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What is
the most important reason for SDAs to ensure they work within these policies?
A. Company policies support consistent behaviour
B. Company policies emphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet their managers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently
B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B

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NO.16 We should maintain a positive service attitude at all times; which option is the best reason for doing
so?
A. A good service attitude will improve SLA performance
B. Users will see the Service Desk as cheerful happy people
C. It will help to build confidence in the service
D. A bad attitude means that SLAs wont be met
Answer: C

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NO.17 How would you characterise a failing team?
A. It is managed without SLAs
B. Its members are very touchy feely
C. Its members demonstrate low morale
D. It is solely focussed on business objectives
Answer: C

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NO.18 Your manager has emphasised the importance of establishing effective working relationships with
other teams in the organisation. Of these options, which is the most important activity you should
undertake to enable this to happen?
A. Learn about and recognise the roles and responsibilities of other teams
B. Ensure that your team is seen by users as their champion
C. Treat everyone according to their importance in the organisation
D. Make certain that the IT director is aware of inter-team communication issues
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring a professional
approach to call management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
Answer: D

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NO.20 Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate
behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
Answer: B

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NO.22 Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest impact
on a Service Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. The users status in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.23 Why is it important to keep to your commitments to your team members?
A. It will help to ensure that bonuses are paid
B. My colleagues will admire my achievements
C. It improves the morale of the Service Desk
D. Management will not criticise my behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which of these options is a characteristic of a successfully performing team?
A. Attendance at team social events is mandatory.
B. The team leader closely manages everyone equally
C. A team member will do anything to be the best
D. Everyone actively listens to each other
Answer: D

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NO.25 In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First Contact Resolution
performance; what else might this data be used for?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels
Answer: B

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NO.26 A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are procedures
and the need for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for consistent
procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not be criticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which attribute would you expect from good team members?
A. They are nice to everyone
B. They have good timekeeping skills
C. They listen to other peoples point of view
D. They cover up their mistakes
Answer: C

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NO.28 What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D

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NO.30 A list of desirable attributes included in a job description for a Service Desk Analyst should include ...
A. Seeing a users Incident or Service Request through to resolution, conveying a willingness to help and
being nice to senior management
B. Conveying a willingness to help, focussing on business needs and providing users with the best
possible service
C. Taking ownership of users Problems, maintaining a positive attitude and focussing your attention on
the user
D. Focussing on business needs, providing users with best possible service with an ability to answer a
high volume of calls
Answer: B

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NO.1 Management has requested that the ability to activate BlackBerry devices on the BlackBerry Enterprise
Server be restricted to approved BlackBerry device models only. What can be used to accommodate this
request? (Choose one)
A. IT Policy
B. PIN to Model Mapping
C. Enterprise Service Policy
D. Application Control Policy
E. Group Filter
Answer: C

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NO.2 After upgrading two Blackberry Enterprise Server instances to software version 5.0 services books and
IT polices are automatically updated and sent to BlackBerry devices running which minimum version of
BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose one)
A. 3.8 and above
B. 4.0 and above
C. 4.2 and above
D. 4.3 and above
E. 5.0 and above
Answer: B

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NO.3 Nextair Corporation has determined the hardware running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software
version 4.1.6 will be insufficient to handle version 5.0. They plan to perform a cutover upgrade using the
existing SQL database. What is an advantage of implementing this strategy? (Choose one)
A. There is no downtime for other BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 instances sharing
the same SQL database
B. They will save the cost of an additional SRP Identifier
C. There is no need to back up the database prior to upgrade
D. The SQL database must be hosted locally to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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NO.4 One thousand BlackBerry 8830 devices have been sent to the employees in the regional offices and the
BlackBerry device users will be issued enterprise activation passwords next week.
Management would like to prevent unneeded wireless data charges. What can be done to ensure this
mass enterprise activation process uses as little wireless data as possible? (Choose one)
A. Set the 'Disable Wireless Activations' IT policy to 'True'
B. Set the 'Disable Wireless Bulk Loads' IT policy to 'True'
C. Set the 'Disable Enterprise Activation Progress' IT policy to 'True'
D. Set theisable Wireline Activations' IT policySet the ?isable Wireline Activations' IT policy to 'True'
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which tool can be used to help control the amount of data the BlackBerry Synchronization Service
sends after an upgrade to BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 5.0 is complete? (Choose one)
A. SBInjector
B. PolcTrait
C. TraitTool
D. SBThrottle
E. SyncControl
Answer: C

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