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Exam Code: 250-513
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12
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Exam Code: ST0-250
Exam Name: Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 Technical Assessment
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NO.1 Which directory data source function must be enabled to help prevent a directory harvest
attack?
A. Active Directory connector
B. Dynamic Data Sourcing
C. LDAP authentication
D. Recipient validation
Answer: D

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NO.2 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5?
A. Store backup on local server
B. Store backup on a remote location using FTP
C. Encrypt local backup
D. Purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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6. After a configurable period of time, a suspect virus is released from the Suspect Virus
Quarantine. What happens to it next?
A. An alert is sent to the email administrator.
B. The attachment is removed and the original message is delivered to the recipient.
C. It is rescanned.
D. It is moved to quarantine.
Answer: C

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7. What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A. Dynamic Data Cache
B. Directory Data Service
C. Active Directory
D. Domain Controller Interface (DCInterface)
Answer: B

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8. If recipient validation is configured properly, which SMTP response level is given to messages
that fail recipient validation queries at connect time?
A. 3xx - Service unavailable
B. 4xx - Temporary delivery failure
C. 5xx - Permanent delivery failure
D. 6xx - Rejected validation failure
Answer: C

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9. How should an administrator stop inbound mail using the command line interface (CLI)?
A. use mta-control
B. use mta-stop
C. use mail-control
D. use mail-stop
Answer: A

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10. Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts
via reports?
A. Spam and Unwanted Mail
B. Submissions
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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11. Which two statistics can the administrator view regarding the custom anti-spam rulesets?
(Select two.)
A. the "top-submitters" of missed spam or false positive detections
B. the "top submitters" of messages that are not valid and did not generate a custom rule
C. how many emails have been submitted for custom antispam rules
D. the effectiveness of the custom antispam rulesets compared to Symantec's rulesets
E. the top senders of messages detected by custon antispam rulesets
Answer: A,C

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12. What two actions can allowed end-users do to submit samples to Symantec and have custom
anti-spam rules created? (Select two.)
A. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client
B. flag messages in their web-based SMG quarantine page as being spam and submitting the results
C. forward spam samples to abuse@symantec.com with a subject of "MISSED SPAM"
D. move the message into the included "Junk E-mail" folder available in Outlook
E. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client available for Lotus Domino
Answer: A,B

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13. A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are
recognized by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure the same administrator email address across both control centers
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure both control centers with the same internal email hosts
Answer: A

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14. An organization would like to participate in the Symantec Probe Network without having to
manually create decoy email accounts. The organization wants to make sure that the addresses that
participate in the Symantec Probe Network are currently receiving email. Which directory data
source function should be enabled to help in this situation?
A. recipient validation
B. address resolution
C. SMTP authentication
D. LDAP routing
Answer: A

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15. What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5
appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. DVD-ROM drive listed on hardware compatibility list
C. valid license file
D. machine account created in Active Directory
Answer: A

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NO.4 Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 will be deployed to receive mail directly from the Internet.
In this situation, which option should be selected within the Inbound Mail Filtering - Accepted Hosts
step of the site setup wizard?
A. Enable MX lookup
B. Define a list of domains
C. Specify IP addresses/domains
D. Select all IP addresses
Answer: D

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NO.5 How does Symantec DLP communicate with Symantec Messaging Gateway (SMG) to indicate
what type of incident (if any) is related to a given message?
A. Symantec DLP uses the ICAP protocol to indicate if a message is clean,or if it violated any defined
policies.
B. Symantec DLP will add information into the message that can be interpreted by SMG and then
send it to SMG via SMTP .
C. Symantec DLP will quarantine messages that violate established policies,blocking it from SMG.
D. Symantec DLP will use TLS to send a notification message to the SMG server for any content
violations.
Answer: B

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C2010-599 PDF VCE, C2020-701 Study Guide

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Exam Code: C2010-599
Exam Name: IBM Storage Productivity Center V5.1 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2020-701
Exam Name: IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Analyst
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NO.1 Which storage system is supported by the storage optimizer in IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity
Center V5.1?
A. SVC 6.2
B. SONAS 1.3
C. DS8800 R6.3
D. Storwiz V7000U 1.3
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which role can perform Fabric Manager functions and has limited access to other nodes?
A. Fabric Operator
B. SAN Administrator
C. Fabric Administrator
D. Productivity Center Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer executes a SAN Planner function and gets an error. Where can the customer
check to
verify the SAN Planner Service is running?
A. Under Administrative Services
B. Under Administrative Services > Services
C. Under Administrative Services > Services > Data Server
D. Under Administrative Services > Services > Device Server
Answer: D

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NO.4 In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1, what are two options presented in the
Repocopy
tool for IBM DB2 Export when exporting data from repository tables? (Choose two.)
A. Export Using Text Files
B. Export Using DB2 Text Files
C. Export Using DB2 Native Format
D. Export Using Comma-separated Excel Sheet
E. Export Using Text Files Containing Comma-separated Values
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What action would an IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 administrator take to create
a
new report using Cognos?
A. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and select Reporting > Create a Basic Report
B. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and select Reporting > Create a Cognos Report
C. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and expand IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Reporting
> Create a Report
D. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and expand IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Reporting
> Cognos Reporting
Answer: A

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NO.6 In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 stand-alone GUI, where can the status of a
performance monitoring job be checked on a switch that is still in progress?
A. In Fabric Manager > Switch Performance > Jobs panel,under Schedules section,select the
Performance Monitoring job,and then View LogFiles under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
B. In Fabric Manager > Monitoring > Job Management panel,under Schedules section,select the
Performance Monitoring job,and then View LogFiles under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
C. In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Job Management panel,under Schedules
section,select the Performance Monitoring job,and then
View Log Files under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
D. In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Monitoring > Job Management panel,under
Schedules section,select the Performance Monitoringjob,then View Log Files under Jobs for
Selected Schedule section.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer needs to run a Discovery job for their VMWare environment. Where in the
stand-alone
GUI for IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 would they need to navigate to create that
job?
A. Administrative Services > Discovery > VMWare
B. Data Manager > Discovery > VMWare VI Data Source
C. Administrative Services > VMWare VI Data Source > Discovery
D. Administrative Services > Discovery > VMWare VI Data Source
Answer: D

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NO.8 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 can communicate with which component over
IPv6?
A. SRA Agents
B. Java Web Start
C. Rollup Reporting
D. SLP Directory Agents
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2010-569
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2010-651
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Applying Maximo Asset Management Solutions V3
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NO.1 Which command defines the FINAL job stream in the database?
A. composer add Sfinal
B. composer load Sfinal
C. composer import Sfinal
D. composer include Sfinal
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are two instances when it is necessary to use the same lightweight third-party
authentication
keys? (Choose two.)
A. When using Single Sign-on
B. When users will be using different browsers
C. when users are located in different domains
D. When using Federated Repositories with LDAP
E. When more than one instance of WebSphere Application Server is installed on the same
computer
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Each branch of the company sends data on the last day of the month. When the data
has been received
a job stream should run. Which type of dependency is the most efficient solution for
controlling processing
of job streams?
A. file dependency
B. cross dependency
C. conditional dependency
D. internetwork dependency
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which file is used to configure an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 dynamic
agent?
A. ita.ini
B. config.ini
C. localopts
D. globalopts
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer is running a highly changing virtualized environment (resources obtained
as needed) and
requests advice on the type of components to include in their IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler
V8.6 (TWS)
network. Which element is appropriate to recommend?
A. TWS dynamic agent
B. TWS fault-tolerant agent
C. TWS standard agent for virtualized data centers
D. TWS extended agent for virtualized data centers
Answer: A

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NO.6 Below is a job stream definition where conman status on fault-tolerant agent FTA1
shows that JOB1 is
SUCC and both FTA's are actively launching jobs.
SCHEDULE FTA2#LAB
:
FTA1#J0B1 FTA2#JOB2 Follows JOB1
END
What must be checked if the status of JOB2 on FTA2 shows HOLD?
A. FTA1 job limit
B. FTA1 fence limit
C. batchman process on FTA1
D. LINK status for FTA1 and FTA2
Answer: D

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NO.7 A user can log into the Dynamic Workload Console (DWC) and access the correct
panels. Which log
file helps to diagnose authentication issues within DWC when attempting to connect to an
IBM Tivoli
Workload Scheduler engine?
A. NETMAN log
B. SystemErr.log
C. SystemOut.log
D. TWSMERGE log
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a supported method for installing an IBM Tivoli WorMoad Scheduler V8.6
master domain
manager on UNIX or Linux?
A. twsinst
B. inst_twa.bin
C. twainstall.bin
D. launchpad.sh
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2020-185
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NO.1 Which two actions can be taken against each artifact under review? (Choose two.)
A. approve
B. pass
C. disapprove
D. reject
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which valid system files can be uploaded to a Rational Requirements Composer
project?
A. Word, Excel, CSV, and HTML only
B. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
C. Word, Excel, CSV, HTML, and images
D. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does a business process diagram represent.?
A. global processes
B. enterprise processes
C. organizational processes
D. company to company processes
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which detailed requirements do use cases contain?
A. functional requirements
B. non-functional requirements
C. testable requirements
D. feature requirements
Answer: A

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NO.5 To ensure project success, what do teams need to pay attention to? (Choose two.)
A. creating a Use Case Diagram for the requirements
B. involving users as early as possible
C. creating a clear statement of business objectives
D. reviewing and validating requirements with stakeholders to achieve a shared vision and
concurrence
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 An administrator wants to prevent a user role from updating project and personal
dashboards. Where
should the administrator manage this from?
A. Manage Project Properties
B. Open My Personal Dashboard (default)
C. Manage this Project Area
D. Lifecycle Project Administration
Answer: C

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NO.7 With the appropriate privileges, which three actions can users take to manipulate
folders? (Choose
three.)
A. move artifacts between folders within the same project area
B. move folders within a project within the same project area
C. copy folders from one project area to another
D. delete folders within a project within the same project area
E. link folders between project areas
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 What does the use case model consists of?
A. actors and use cases
B. diagrams only
C. text only
D. diagrams and text
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which statement describes administrative privileges?
A. Provides audit functionality for the database.
B. Manages resource allocations for concurrent processing.
C. Gives permission to execute global operations and to create objects.
D. Gives additional storage to select members of the administrator group.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered
base
table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is required to troubleshoot a query?
A. nzevents and the pg.log.
B. nzsql and the ODBC config.
C. nzinventory and the dbos.log.
D. nzdumpschema and the execution plan.
Answer: D

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NO.4 OLE-DB based applications on UNIX requires which PureData System for Analytics software?
A. Install the JDBC driver for UNIX.
B. Install the ODBC driver for UNIX.
C. Install the OLE-DB driver for UNIX.
D. OLE-DB is not supported on UNIX.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which will result in support for zonemaps on the LastName column?
A. CREATE TABLE TableA (LastName VARCHAR(20));
B. CREATE TABLE TableA (LastName VARCHAR(20));
ALTER TABLE TableA ZONEMAP ON (LastName);
C. CREATE TABLE TableA (LastName VARCHAR(20)) DISTRIBUTE ON (LastName);
D. CREATE TABLE TableA (LastName VARCHAR(20));
CREATE MATERIALIZED VIEW ViewA AS SELECT * FROM TableA ORDER BY LastName;
Answer: D

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NO.6 Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2080-474
Exam Name: IBM Tealeaf Customer Experience Management V8.7, Business Analysis
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NO.1 An analyst in a retail organization is asked to provide a weekly report indicating the average
number of payment errors per session. To accomplish this, the analyst created an event counting
the number of payment errors per session. The event will be used as the value for the event used in
the report. The two events are Events A and B:
- Event A counts the number of payments errors per session.
- Event B will be created by the analyst to be used in a report. When should Event B fire?
A. Every Hit
B. After Every Hit
C. End of Session
D. After Every Step
Answer: C

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NO.2 An event modeler is tasked with creating a report that shows the percent of sessions with
failed searches. The event modeler creates a new event to record failed searches. What should be
chosen to track this event?
A. Every Hit
B. First per Session
C. Every Occurrence
D. First Hit of Session
Answer: B

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NO.3 The marketing department asks the business analyst to track the number of customers who
continue through the checkout flowthree pages sequentially. The analyst already has an event
configured to fire for each of three respective pages. Which of the following would the analyst use?
A. A sequence event with the condition set as events A and C firing in order.
B. A sequence event with the condition set as events A, B and C firing in order.
C. A distance event with evaluator set as "Distance between events is between the following
number of seconds".
D. A sequence event with the evaluator set as "Distance between events is between the following
number of seconds".
Answer: B

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NO.4 An event modeler is tasked with creating a new hit attribute to capture the text displayed to
customers on the home page. The modeler is also asked to provide a report of the values generated.
The text value is displayed in a DIV tag on the home page called yCompanyDiv8?to provide a report
of the values generated. The text value is displayed in a DIV tag on the home page
called ?yCompanyDiv8? Which should the modeler use to configure the hit attribute?
A. Text Pattern
B. Step Pattern
C. Custom Tags
D. Start Tag/End Tag
Answer: D

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NO.5 An event modeler is tasked with creating an event that records the Referrer of each session to
identify where visitors to the site are coming from. When should this event be evaluated?
A. Every Step
B. End of Session
C. After Every Step
D. First Hit of Session
Answer: D

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NO.6 Create a new event that fires when the Coupon Code event exists on hit, but the Coupon Code
Entry Value dimension value is "valid'.
Answer: C

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5. A business analyst has been assigned to evaluate the behavior of customers making multiple
attempts in a new registration process. Which event should be created?
A. An event that tracks abandonment from the first step.
B. An event that tracks failure at the registration submission.
C. An event that captures the distance between the start and completion in hits.
D. An event that fires when the required steps are present but not in the correct sequence.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A business analyst is working with a coupon code entry field, and wants to make an event that
fires when the value entered is not a valid coupon code. There are 3000 valid coupon codes.
How can this be accomplished?
A. 1. Create an event called "Coupon Code Entry" that fires when the coupon code hit attribute is
not empty.
2.Create a dimension text group list for Coupon Code Entry Value on the coupon code hit attribute.
3.Create a new event that fires when the Coupon Code Entry event does not fire on the relevant hit,
and apply the Coupon Code Entry Valuedimension.
B. 1. Create an event called "Coupon Code Entry" that fires when the coupon code hit attribute is
not empty
2.Create a dimension for Coupon Code Entry Value.
3.Create an event that fires when the Coupon Code Entry exists on the hit with a value of "invalid".
4.Add the Dimension Coupon Code Entry Value to the new event.
C. 1. Create an event called "Coupon Code Entry" that fires when the coupon code hit attribute is
not empty.
2.Create a dimension text group list for Coupon Code Entry Value.
3.Create a group with the valid entries listed named "valid'.
4.Create an event that fires when the Coupon Code Entry event fires, but the Coupon Code Entry
Value dimension value is not "valid'.
D. 1. Create an event called "Coupon Code Entry" that fires when the coupon code hit attribute is
not empty.
2.Create a dimension text group list for Coupon Code Entry Value.
3.Create a group with the valid entries listed named "valid'.
4.Apply that dimension to the Coupon Code event.

NO.8 How many Session Attributes can users define?
A. 24
B. 30
C. 64
D. Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.1 Offenses can be exported to which two file formats? (Choose two.)
A. RTF
B. XML
C. PDF
D. CSV
E. HTML
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Using Quick Filter, what is a correct search term to find Blocked related activities in the
payload?
A. Blocked
B. "payload includes Blocked"
C. payload includes "Blocked"
D. (payload includes) Blocked
Answer: A

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NO.3 If a report author shares a report with another IBM Security QRadar V7 0 MR4 user, what type
of report access is granted to the other user.?
A. The other user can only access the report if they are an administrator.
B. The other user can use the original report as if it were created by that person.
C. The report output will be defined by the intersection of networkobjects and log sources of alluser
with
whom the report is shared.
D. The other user will not have any access to the original report definition but can do as they please
with
the report definition of the shared copy.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a prerequisite to create a report that contains at least one bar chart?
A. Have a color display and enable the JPanel
B. Have the role assigned to create (graphical) reports
C. Choose a search that has accumulated properties for the report
D. The search contained in the report must aggregate the results at least along one property
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which event search group contains default PCI searches?
A. Compliance
B. System Monitoring
C. Network Monitoring and Management
D. Authentication, Identity, and User Activity
Answer: A

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NO.6 How many default dashboards are included in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.7 If the IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 operator wants to graph the flow data in the Network
Activity tab,which three chart types can be presented? (Choose three.)
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Line Chart
D. Area Chart
E. Gant Chart
F. Time Series Chart
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.8 What does it mean if events are coming in as stored?
A. The events are not mapped to an existing QID map.
B. The events are being captured and parsed by a DSM.
C. The events are being captured but not being parsed by a DSM.
D. The events are being stored on disk and will be parsed by a DSM later.
Answer: C

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