2013年6月30日星期日

642-889 examination of the latest Cisco certification exam questions and answers

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Exam Code: 642-889

Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Egde Network Services)

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NO.1 Which flavor of MPLS Layer 3 VPN has MPLS enabled on PE-CE links?
A. basic
B. CSC
C. inter-AS
D. AToM
E. VPLS
Answer: B

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NO.2 In MPLS Layer 3 VPN implementations, what is used on the PE router to isolate potential overlapping
routing information between different customers?
A. route targets
B. VRFs
C. VC IDs
D. pseudowire IDs
E. pseudowire classes
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which type of VPN requires a full mesh of virtual circuits to provide optimal site-to-site connectivity?
A. MPLS Layer 3 VPNs
B. Layer 2 overlay VPNs
C. GET VPNs
D. peer-to-peer VPNs
Answer: B

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NO.4 Within the service provider IP/MPLS core network, what must be implemented to enable Layer 3 MPLS
VPN services?
A. IS-IS or OSPF on all the PE and P routers
B. MP-BGP between the PE routers
C. RSVP on all the PE and P routers
D. targeted LDP between the PE routers
E. LDP between the CE and PE routers
Answer: B

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NO.5 Refer to the Cisco IOS XR router output exhibit,
which method is being used to transport IPv6 traffic over the service provider network?
A. 6PE
B. 6VPE
C. native IPv6
D. native IPv4
E. dual stack
Answer: B

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NO.6 In MPLS Layer 3 VPN implementations, which mechanism is used to control which routes are
imported to a VRF?
A. RT
B. RD
C. VC ID
D. PW ID
E. VRF ID
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which MP-BGP address family must be configured to use VPLS autodiscovery in a Cisco IOS XR
router?
A. address-family l2vpn vpls-vpws
B. address-family vpnv4 unicast
C. address-family ipv4 mdt
D. address-family ipv4 tunnel
E. address-family vpls vfi
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which three Layer 3 VPN technologies are based on the overlay model.? (Choose three.)
A. ATM virtual circuits
B. Frame Relay virtual circuits
C. GRE/IPsec
D. L2TPv3
E. MPLS Layer 3 VPNs
F. DMVPNs
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.9 What is the primary difference between 6PE and 6VPE?
A. 6VPE does not require an MPLS core.
B. 6VPE requires an IPv6-aware core.
C. 6VPE provides IPv6 VPN services.
D. 6VPE tunnels IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which VPN technology uses the Group Domain of Interpretation as the keying protocol and IPsec for
encryption that is often deployed over a private MPLS core network?
A. DMVPN
B. GET VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. L2TPv3
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 648-247

Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Connected Physical Security 2 Exam)

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NO.1 What are the three common methods that are used for authentication with an access control system.?
A. badge card, key fob, and keypad PIN
B. badge card, keypad PIN, and password
C. something you know, something you have, and something you are
D. something you know, something you have, and something you did
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the four main components of a typical logical door?
A. door, door knob, door jam, and hinges
B. lock, reader, tailgate sensor, and motion detector
C. lock, request to exit, door position switch, and swing arm
D. lock, reader, request to exit, and door position switch
Answer: D

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NO.3 Cisco Physical Access Manager (Cisco PAM) is an appliance-based solution. The Cisco PAM 1.3.2
appliance is available on which of the following server platforms?
A. CIVS-MSP-1RU-K9
B. CPS-MSP-1RU-K9
C. CPS-MSP-2RU-K9
D. CIAC-PAME-1125-K9
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
One or more expansion modules is connected to the Cisco Access Gateway via a CAN bus. How should
the CAN bus wires be connected after the last module in the chain?
A. The CAN bus wires should be looped back to the Cisco Access Gateway.
B. The CAN bus wires should be twisted together and tucked away.
C. The CAN bus wires should be plugged into a Layer 2 Ethernet switch.
D. The CAN bus wires should be terminated with a high-impedance resistor.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When a 24 VDC fail safe lock is being used to secure a door, how should power be supplied to the lock
from the control source?
A. connected +24 VDC directly to the lock
B. connected +24 VDC through common and normally close
C. connected +24 VDC through common and normally open
D. connected +5 VDC binary control signaling
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 642-999

Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing)

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NO.1 When adding a VMware ESXi host to the Distributed Virtual Switch, what are two risks of
migrating
a VMNIC that is associated to vSwitch 0? (Choose two.)
A. loss of access to the management IP interface
B. duplicate IP address error
C. duplicate MAC address error
D. loss of VMware ESXi communication with VMware vCenter
E. DVS port group will not appear in the VM network settings
F. DVS port group will overwrite the port groups in vSwitch 0
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a feature of the Cisco Unified Computing System VIC-1280
adaptor?
A. capable of up to 256 virtual interfaces
B. supports FCoE
C. supports Cisco VM-FEX
D. compatible with the C- or B-Series Cisco Unified Computing System servers
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode?
(Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the maximum ports that are filed in the port profile?
A. determines the maximum number of uplinks that VMs can use
B. determines the maximum number of VMs that can use the DVS
C. determines the maximum number of DVSs that can use the port profile
D. determines the maximum number of dynamic vNICS on the DVS
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which options are valid port types when configuring fixed 10-Gb LAN interfaces on the Cisco
UCS
6200 Series Fabric Interconnects? (Choose three.)
A. monitoring port
B. server port
C. uplink Ethernet port
D. FEX port
E. Fibre Channel storage port
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: 100-101

Exam Name: Cisco (CCNA Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices 1 (ICND1))

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NO.1 The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The
workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its
own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the
requirements.
Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. seven 48-port hubs
D. seven 48-port switches
E. one router interface
F. seven router interfaces
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will
the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames
directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Answer: E

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NO.3 How does a switch differ from a hub?
A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.
B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 500-254

Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Service Engine - SISE)

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NO.1 What is the Cisco ISE default admin login name and password?
A. admin/admin
B. admin/cisco
C. ISEAdmin/admin
D. admin/no default password —the admin password is configured at setup
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the process for Cisco ISE to obtain a signed certificate from a CA?
A. Request a certificate from the CA, and import the CA-signed certificate into ISE.
B. Generate a CSR; download the certificate from the CA; bind the CA-signed certificate with its
private key, and import the CA-signed certificate into ISE.
C. Generate a CSR; export the CSR to the local file system and send to the CA; download the
certificate from the CA, and bind the CA-signed certificate with its private key.
D. Submit a CSR to the CA; download the certificate from the CA; bind the CA-signed certificate
with its private key, and import the CA-signed certificate into ISE.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Inline Posture nodes support which enforcement mechanisms?
A. VLAN assignment
B. downloadable ACLs
C. security group access
D. dynamic ACLs
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of these is NOT a high-availability option that is available for Cisco ISE deployments?
A. In the event of failure of the Primary Administration node, the standby instance automatically
becomes active.
B. In the event of failure of the Primary Monitoring node, the standby instance automatically
becomes active.
C. Clustering of Policy Service nodes to provide N+1 redundancy
D. Stateless failover of Inline Posture nodes
Answer: A

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NO.5 The default Cisco ISE node configuration has which role or roles enabled by default?
A. Administration only
B. Inline Posture only
C. Administration and Policy Service
D. Policy Service, Monitoring, and Administration
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two elements must you configure on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller to allow Cisco ISE
to
authenticate wireless users? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Cisco ISE as a RADIUS authentication server and enter a shared secret.
B. Configure Cisco ISE as a RADIUS accounting server and enter a shared secret.
C. Configure all attached LWAPs to use the configured Cisco ISE node.
D. Configure RADIUS attributes for each SSID.
E. Configure each WLAN to use the configured Cisco ISE node.
F. Configure the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller to join a Microsoft Active Directory domain.
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which three Cisco TrustSec enforcement modes are used to help protect network operations
when securing the network? (Choose three.)
A. logging mode
B. monitor mode
C. semi-passive mode
D. low-impact mode
E. closed mode
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 Which statement is correct about Change of Authorization?
A. Change of Authorization is a fundamental component of Cisco TrustSec and Cisco ISE.
B. Change of Authorization can be triggered dynamically based on a matched condition in a
policy, and manually by being invoked by an administrator operation.
C. It is possible to trigger Change of Authorization manually from the ISE interface.
D. Authentication is the supported Change of Authorization action type.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Where is the license installed within Cisco ISE deployment?
A. A license is installed on the Policy Service node within ISE deployment.
B. A license is installed on the primary or secondary Administration node within ISE deployment.
C. A license is installed only on the primary Administration node within ISE deployment.
D. A license is preinstalled for ISE deployment.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are two methods to verify that Cisco ISE is properly connected to AD? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Test Connection feature in the Cisco ISE External Identity Sources Active Directory.
B. View the Active Directory Log /opt/CSCOcmp/logs/ad_agent.log.
C. Use the ISE Dashboard Summary alarms.
D. Use ktpass to determine if the Kerberos ticket is valid.
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: 156-515

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Plus NGX)

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NO.1 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all
internal IPs
passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.3 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an
NGX product.
A.List Possible Causes
B.Identify the Problem
C.Collect Related Information
D.Consult Various Reference Sources
E.Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's
troubleshooting
guidelines?
A. B, C, A, E, D
B. A, E, B, D, C
C. A, B, C, D, E
D. B, A, D, E, C
E. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.5 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.6 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a Demilitarized
Zone (DMZ). If
an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.9 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it access
to the
protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load passing
through a
Security Gateway.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-515   156-515

NO.10 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-215.71

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R71)

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NO.1 Which type of resource could a Security Administrator use to control access to specific file shares on
target machines?
A.URI
B.CIFS
C.Telnet
D.FTP
Answer: B

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NO.2 Blocked connections

NO.3 Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A.Asymmetric encryption
B.Symmetric encryption
C.Certificate-based encryption
D.Dynamic encryption
Answer: A

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NO.4 Latency has lost SIC communication with her Security Gateway and she needs to re establish
SIC.What would be the correct order of steps needed to perform this task?
1) Create a new activation key on the Security Gateway, then exit cpconfig.
2) Click the Communication tab on the Security Gateway object, and then click Reset.
3) Run the cpconfig tool, and then select Secure Internal Communication to reset.
4) Input the new activation key in the Security Gateway object, and then click initialize
5) Run the cpconfig tool, then select source Internal Communication to reset.
A.5, 4, 1, 2
B.2, 3, 1, 4
C.2, 5, 1, 4
D.3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: B

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NO.5 SmartView Tracker traffic logs

NO.6 Phase 1 uses________.
A.Conditional
B.Sequential
C.Asymmetric
D.Symmetric
Answer: C

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NO.7 Implied Rules

NO.8 What can NOT be selected for VPN tunnel sharing?
A.One tunnel per subnet pair
B.One tunnel per Gateway pair
C.One tunnel per pair of hosts
D.One tunnel per VPN domain pair
Answer: D

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NO.9 Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control?
1) Simplified mode Rule Bases
2) Traditional mode Rule Bases

NO.10 When configuring the network interfaces of a checkpoint Gateway, the direction can be defined as
Internal or external.
What is meaning of interface leading to DMZ?
A.It defines the DMZ Interface since this information is necessary for Content Control.
B.Using restricted Gateways, this option automatically turns off the counting of IP Addresses originating
from this interface
C.When selecting this option.Ann-Spoofing is configured automatically to this net.
D.Activating this option automatically turns this interface to External
Answer: A

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NO.11 VPN communities

NO.12 A rule _______ is designed to log and drop all other communication that does not match another rule?
A.Stealth
B.Cleanup
C.Reject
D.Anti-Spoofing
Answer: B

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NO.13 An advantage of using central instead of local licensing is:
A.A license can be taken from one Security Management server and given to another Security
Management Server.
B.Only one IP address is used for all licenses.
C.Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.
D.The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of security Gateway.Each module s
license has a unique IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You run cpconfig to reset SIC on the Security Gateway.After the SIC reset operation is complete, the
policy that will be installed is the
A.Last policy that was installed
B.Default filter
C.Standard policy
D.Initial policy
Answer: D

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NO.15 Security Gateway R71 supports User Authentication for which of the following services? Select the
response below that contains the most complete list of supported services.
A.FTP, HTTP, TELNET
B.FTP, TELNET
C.SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNET
D.SMTP, FTP, TELNET
Answer: A

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NO.16 A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT.Client side NAT is not
checked in the Global Properties.A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server.Assuming
there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the
Web server?
A.Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B.A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C.Nothing else must be configured.
D.A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway's upstream router.
Answer: B

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NO.17 IPS Profiles

NO.18 If you check the box Use Aggressive Mode in the IKE Properties dialog box, the standard:
A.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange Is replaced by a six-packet exchange
B.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a two-packet exchange
C.six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet exchange
D.three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange
Answer: C

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NO.19 SIC certificates

NO.20 Gateway licenses
A.3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B.5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C.1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D.2, 4, 7, 10, 11
Answer: B

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3.You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners.Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A.SmartDashboard
B.SmartView Tracker
C.SmartUpdate
D.SmartView Status
Answer: C

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4.You are running a R71 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform, in case of a hardware failure.You have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version Installed.What backup method could be used to
quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A.Upgrade_export
B.Manual backup
C.Snapshot
D.Backup
Answer: C

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5.Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies.Your
manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policy to benefit from the new features.
This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would
you start such a migration?
A.This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified
mode Gateway does not work.
B.You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all
Gateways at the same time.
C.This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.
D.Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then
migrate Gateway per Gateway.
Answer: D

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6.What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new
packages with smartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate GUI PC
B.SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
C.A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package
D.SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC
Answer: A

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7.In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A.Blank field under Rule Number
B.Rule 0
C.Cleanup Rule
D.Rule 1
Answer: B

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8.The URL Filtering Policy can be configured to monitor URLs in order to:
A.Log sites from blocked categories.
B.Redirect users to a new URL.
C.Block sites only once.
D.Alert the Administrator to block a suspicious site.
Answer: A

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9.The Customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway.This is an Example of a (n):
A.Stand-Alone Installation.
B.Unsupported configuration
C.Distributed Installation
D.Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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10.You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an
internal Webserver that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address You have an unused valid IP address on
the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router.You control the router that sits between the
external interface of the firewall and the Internet.What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot
be used on your Security Gateway?
A.Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B.Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall s external address.
C.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Answer: B

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11.The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in global
properties.He managed to lock all of the administrators out of their accounts.How should you unlock these
accounts?
A.Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account, right click on administrator
object and select Unlock.
B.Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Manager server.
C.Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
D.Delete the file admin.lock in the $fwDIR/tmp/ directory of the Security Management server.
Answer: B

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12.You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host.You decide that you want to block everything
from that whole network, not just the problematic host.You want to block this for an hour while you
investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base.How do you achieve this?
A.Add a °t e m po r a r ¡± rule u si n g Sm a r t D ashbo ard an d s el e c t hi d e ru.
B.Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor
C.Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
D.Select block intruder from the tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
Answer: B

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13.The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A.Session and Network layers
B.Application and Presentation layers
C.Physical and Data link layers
D.Network and Data link layers
Answer: D

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NO.21 Manual NAT rules

NO.22 Which of these security policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A.Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible
B.Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
C.Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D.Using domain objects in rules when possible
Answer: A

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NO.23 Secure Platform WebUI Users

NO.24 SmartView Tracker audit logs

NO.25 Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when:
i) NAT decision is based on the destination port
ii) Source and Destination IP both have to be translated
iii) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway only
iv) NAT should be performed on the server side
A.(i), (ii), and (iii)
B.(i), and (ii)
C.ii) and (iv)
D.only (i)
Answer: D

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NO.26 You have created a rule Base Firewall, websydney.Now you are going to create a new policy package
with security and address transaction rules for a secured gateway.What is true about the new package s
NAT rules?
A.Rules 1 and 5 will be appear in the new package
B.Rules 1, 3, 4and 5 will appear in the new package
C.Rules 2, 3 and 4 will appear in the new package
D.NAT rules will be empty in the new package
Answer: C

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NO.27 For which service is it NOT possible to configure user authentication?
A.HTTPS
B.FTP
C.SSH
D.Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which port must be allowed to pass through enforcement points in order to allow packet logging to
operate correctly?
A.514
B.256
C.257
D.258
Answer: C

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NO.29 Gateway route table

NO.30 While in Smart View Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be
an intrusion.He decides to block the traffic for 60 but cannot remember all the steps.What is the correct
order of steps needed to perform this?
1) Select the Active Mode tab In Smart view Tracker
2) Select Tools > Block Intruder
3) Select the Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker
4) Set the Blocking Time out value to 60 minutes
5) Highlight the connection he wishes to block
A.3, 2, 5, 4
B.3, 5, 2, 4
C.1, 5, 2, 4
D.1, 2, 5, 4
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-706

Exam Name: CheckPoint (CPCS - PointSec 6.1)

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NO.1 A one time login and remote password change response can he used multiple times to allow access to
the machine
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following strategies, if used individually, is viewed to he the most secure method to protect
data?
A. File encryption
B. Boot protection
C. Encryption
D. Boot protection and encryption
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do Offline Profiles work?
A. By applying a profile to a user when a connection to the Device Protector server cannot be made
B. By forcing users to go offline in the event of a security breach O
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are 3 processes which Device Protector exempts by Default
A. .BAT.CMD.MP3 :
B. .EXE .VBS .BAT
C. JPG .DOC .XML
D. .GIF.DLL.CPL
E. .EXE .COM .SYS
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following is not a directory path designated in the profile?
A. Recovery path
B. Update path
C. Software update
D. Installation
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following components is not installed as part of a Pointsec for PC installation?
A. Pre boot authentication
B. Secure user database
C. Monitoring tool
D. File encryption
Answer: D

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NO.7 When logged into wehRH, what is the only task that a help-desk user can perform?
A. Create a rec file
B. Create updates
C. Force uninstall
D. Provide Remote Help
Answer: D

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NO.8 Is Active Directory / Eilirectory required for Device Protector to work?
A. No, as Device Protector can work within Linux
B. No, only a copy of Windows XP Home
C. Yes, Device Protector cannot be installed without an Active Directory / Edirectory being present
D. No, but you will only be able to apply profiles to the local machine
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of these methods cannot he used to uninstall a Pointsec for PC encrypted system?
A. Add/Remove Programs
B. Use .rec to decrypt in recovery mode
C. Manual removal of files
D. An un-install profile
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the options to harvest log for 3rd party tools
A. Use GET command with FTP Server script
B. Export logs from Pre Boot Environment
C. Use pslogexp.exe to export logs
D. Simply point your 3rd party tool to the Pointsec recovery path
Answer: C

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NO.11 If a client machine in need of a profile update has no path for update profiles set in the Pointsec
Management Console. Is it possible to still update this client?
A. Yes, by placing the profile in the search path for its recovery files.
B. No, it is not possible to update this client
C. Yes by placing the profile in the system root directory
D. Yes, by placing the profile in %PROGRAM FILES%\Pointsec\Pointsec for PC /work.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You cm also use preclieck.txt to configure settings for?
A. Third-party Graphical Identification and Authentication (GINA) dlls
B. Single Sign On (SSO) delay times
C. Profile update intervals
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the name of the Service that can he used for transfer ting the recovery file to the network share
instead of the logged on user.?
A. Pointsec Service Start
B. Pointsec Transer Service
C. Pointsec Recovery Service
D. None of the Above
Answer: A

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NO.14 How would you uninstall Pointsec from a machine that has not written a recovery file {.rec} and has yet
to he encrypted?
A. Use "reco_img.exe" and perform forced removal
B. Create recovery disk using another rec file
C. Add/remove programs
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.15 How cm Device Protector stop my new programs from being installed and old programs from being
uninstalled?
A. By setting Removable Media Manager to prevent any application uninstallations / installations.
B. By selecting .EXE and .MSI in Trusted File Types in Program Security Guard
C. By setting Device Manager to Deny All
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.2 The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Answer: A

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NO.3 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not
encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.4 If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum
number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Answer: D

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NO.5 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: C

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NO.6 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.7 You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40,
and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is
HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
Answer: D

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NO.8 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool
would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.9 How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What
command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unloadlocal
Answer: A

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NO.1 Before you can run custom Health and Service Level Reports, you need to make sure that: (Choose
four)
A. Report log files have been updated.
B. Service Profiles have been configured.
C. Groups and Groups Lists arepopulated.
D. User Permissions have been configured.
E. The Database is set up and is operational.
F. Correct report definitions have been created.
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.2 Which report type can you drill down to from an At-a-Glance report?
A. TopN
B. Trend
C. Health
D. Service Level
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command do you use to open the OneClick for eHealth console only?
A. ehealth -h
B. ehealth -oce
C. ehealth -once
D. ehealth -motif
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about using Oracle with CA eHealth is TRUE?
A. CA eHealth supports the use of a remote Oracle database.
B. All versions of CA eHealth now use the Oracle double-byte software.
C. A database can be on a mapped or mounted drive with high-speed connectivity.
D. You can use Oracle or other after-market tools to back up the CA eHealth database.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In Report Center, which users are considered super users.?
A. Server Administrators
B. Report Administrators
C. System Administrators
D. Directory Administrators
Answer: C

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