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Exam Code: C2040-405
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration Update
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Exam Code: P2180-089
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NO.1 How can an IBM Domino administrator set all new personal contacts created by users to be
private by default?
A. In the mail policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
B. In the desktop policy settings document, enable "Mark new contacts as private by default".
C. In the security policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
D. In the Server configuration document, in the iNotes settings, enable "Mark new contacts as
private by default".
Answer: B

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NO.2 An IBM Notes user kills the Notes client while its still busy waiting for input, and this results in
a new record in the Fault Reports database.
How will this type of crash be categorized in the version 9.0 By Disposition view?
A. Problem category
B. Informational category
C. Possible Problem (possibly actionable) category
D. Possible Problem (likely NOT actionable) category
Answer: C

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NO.3 Jan wants to create a Program document in order to run the new Database Maintenance Tool
(dbmt) for mail files on the IBM Domino server. What are two adjustments that Jan must make to
the server's notes.ini file before creating the Program document? (Choose two.)
A. Remove Updall from the Server Tasks lines in the notes.ini.
B. Set MailFileDisableCompactAbort=1 to temporarily stop the delivery of mail.
C. Set DBMT_FILTER=names.nsf to ensure the Domino Directory is not compacted.
D. Set dbmt-updallThreads=0 to have the Database Maintenance Tool skip operations performed by
Updall.
E. Set dbmt_stdr85mail=$Inbox,$Drafts,$All to ensure key views in mail databases that use the
StdR85Mail template are built.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Bill's users are complaining they want to have certain calendar entries more prominent in the
calendar view. How can Bill's users customize calendar entries to make certain entries more visible?
A. The user can assign a calendar entry to Important Meeting view.
B. The user can utilize the Add Highlight Color action from the Calendar Action bar.
C. The user can choose to add the importance flag to a calendar entry upon creation.
D. The user can use the "Color-code calendar entries by category" feature to highlight select
calendar entries.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Nancy is configuring an internet site document for federated login, but when she clicks on the
IdP Catalog button to select an IdP Configuration document, she cannot open the IdP Catalog
application. What could be the cause of this problem?
A. Nancy does not have access rights to the IdP Catalog Application.
B. The Open Social Component is not installed on her IBM Notes client.
C. Nancy does not have rights to run unrestricted agents on the IBM Domino server.
D. Nancy's Workstation ECL does not recognize the signer of the IdP Catalog Application.
Answer: A

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NO.6 If both the IBM iNotes and IBM Notes clients are being used, what should the "Session
authentication" field be set to in the Server document > Internet Protocols > Domino Web Engine
tab on the IBM Domino server running Shindig?
A. none
B. Disabled
C. Single Server
D. Multiple Servers (SSO)
Answer: D

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NO.7 What tool is used to configure Tivoli Federated Identity Manager as the identity provider for
IBM Domino?
A. notes.ini file
B. IBM Notes client
C. Domino Web Administrator
D. Integrated Solutions Console
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which document is used to configure IBM Docs integration with IBM Domino?
A. Server document
B. Person document
C. Server Configuration document
D. Mail Policy Settings document
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2010-515
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Exam Code: M2150-225
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Exam Code: M2020-622
Exam Name: IBM Risk Analytics for Insurance and Pensions Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which is the appropriate qualifying question for a prospect for the IBM Algorithmics Actuarial
& Financial Modeler?
A. Are you struggling to adapt your current actuarial models to address new business requirements?
B. Are you building an internal model for Economic Capital or Solvency II?
C. What are your plans for consolidating input data from various systems'?
D. What methodology do you use to aggregate market and non-market risk?
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Algorithmics Actuarial and Financial Modeling provides a range of business benefits, including:
*Advanced actuarial modeling to undertake the full spectrum of global actuarial
calculations, and address the challenges of 'real-world', principles-based modeling.
Supports regulatory compliance including Solvency II and other regimes.
*Scalable modeling and production infrastructure enables full transparency, audit, workflow
and control over the modeling process.
*Critical decision support enables more effective, risk-informed business strategies.
*Helps reduce actuarial costs and optimize ease of use with swift implementation and processing
speeds.
Note:
*Supports regulatory compliance
Enhances confidence with a secure modeling and production environment that supports
compliance across a range of risk-based regulatory and other supervisory regimes,
including Solvency II and IFRS.

NO.2 Which of these C-level executives would be a key influencer for the selection of a Solvency II
Compliance Solution?
A. Senior Vice President of Global Sales
B. Chief Marketing Officer
C. Vice President of European Sales
D. Chief Investment Officer
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*Solvency II is an EU legislative programme to be implemented in all 27 Member States, including
the UK. It introduces a new, harmonised EU-wide insurance regulatory regime. The legislation
replaces 13 existing EU insurance directives.
*The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation. Primarily this concerns the amount of capital that EU insurance companies
must hold to reduce the risk of insolvency.

NO.3 Which one of the following is the key legislative driver for insurance companies and pension
funds to improve their risk management processes?
A. Basle II
B. Basle III
C. Solvency II
D. Dodd Frank
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Dodd-Frank:made changes in the American financial regulatory environment
that affect all federal financial regulatory agencies and almost every part of the nation's financial
services industry.
Incorrect:
Not A:Basel II, initially published in June 2004, was intended to create an international
standard for banking regulators to control how much capital banks need to put aside to
guard against the types of financial and operational risks banks (and the whole economy) face.
Not B:Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a global, voluntary regulatory standard on
bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk.
Not C: The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation.

NO.4 What is the product at the core of the IBM Algorithmics Economic Capital and Solvency II:
Compliance and Reporting Edition?
A. Netteza
B. IBM Algorithmics Actuarial & Financial Modeler
C. Collateral Management
D. Open Pages for Insurance Risk
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Compliance and Reporting Edition *Offers a pre-configured, robust and rapid implementation
solution for Solvency II that focuses on a Standard Formula approach. Provides you with the
capabilities of Algo Financial Modeler, a powerful actuarial and financial modeling engine, combined
with a workflow, governance and reporting tool to deliver an end-to-end solution for Solvency II
*Algo Financial Modeler can either calculate liability cashflows or act as an aggregation layer to
consolidate cashflows generated by existing actuarial systems. *Offers the flexibility to scale up to
the more advanced feature set of the Enterprise Edition to meet the challenges of changing
business requirements and growth.

NO.5 Which type of global insurance company must comply with the regulations introduced by
Solvency II?
A. European-based Life insurer with GPW of less than 5M Euros
B. A Tokyo-based multi-line insurer with an open market value of more than 100M Euros
C. A London-based multi-line insurer with GPW of 10M Euros
D. A North American based Property & Casualty Insurer with GPW of S10M
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*Solvency II is an EU legislative programme to be implemented in all 27 Member States, including
the UK. It introduces a new, harmonised EU-wide insurance regulatory regime. The legislation
replaces 13 existing EU insurance directives.
*The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation. Primarily this concerns the amount of capital that EU insurance companies
must hold to reduce the risk of insolvency.

NO.6 Which risk management technique is currently the main motivation for pension funds
toacquirenew risk management systems?
A. Operational Risk
B. Liability hedging strategy
C. Corporate counter party risk
D. Sovereign debt risk
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Pension funds currently face a multitude of challenges and risks. We believe liability hedging (also
known as liability matching) is an effective way to help de-risk a fund.

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Exam Code: A2090-303
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NO.1 On a system that currently boots from hdisk0, what command will extend the boot order to
include hdisk1?
A. bootlist-ahdisk0 hdisk1
B. bosboot-M norm hdisk0 hdisk1
C. bootlist-m normal hdisk0 hdisk1
D. bosboot-e hdisk0 hdisk1
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator created a log logical volume named dbfs2loglv. Given the following output,
why did the system create and use a new log logical volume rather than the log logical volume that
the administrator specified?
A. The filesystem was built with a mirrored logical volume and 2 log logical volumes are needed.
B. The administrator created the db2fsloglv log but neglected to format it with the logform
command.
C. The db2fsloglv log was created as a JFS log and a JFS2 log was needed.
D. There was already another filesystem using the db2fsloglv when the filesystem was created
Answer: B

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NO.3 When attempting to connect to a remote system, a long delay is experienced before the login
prompt is displayed. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The /etc/resolv.conf file on the remote system is missing.
B. The /etc/resolv.conf file on the remote system has an invalid entry.
C. The /etc/hosts file on the remote system does not have an entry for itself.
D. The /etc/hosts file on the remote system has an invalid hostname listed for itself.
Answer: B

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NO.4 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the
correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the
inconsistent fileset levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which command can be used to monitor I/O activity?
A. cpio
B. alstat
C. iostat
D. vmstat
Answer: D

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NO.6 With regard to GLVM mirroring, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Mirrored locations are limited to being 254 miles apart
B. Data mirroring is performed over standard TCP/IP networks
C. GLVM requires any hosted database applications to be mirror-tolerant.
D. Production and backup sites must use the exact same model of IBM Power System server
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is a requirement for a concurrent firmware update on a Power Systems
server?
A. The firmware must be upgraded to a new release.
B. The Power Systems server must have a redundant FSP .
C. The Power Systems server must be managed by an HMC.
D. The primary partition must have all system resources assigned.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which action will temporarily disable remote login access using telnet and ssh for all non-root
accounts?
A. Update /etc/security/passwd and recycle the inetd subsystem.
B. Stop the sshd subsystem.
C. Create a/etc/nologin file.
D. Set the PermitLogins parameter in /etc/ssh/sshd_config and recycle the sshd daemon.
E. Touch the /etc/sshd/nologin file and recycle the sshd daemon.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: P2090-079
Exam Name: IBM Initiate Master Data Service Support Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a critical operating environment factor which can impact
Initiate's system
performance?
A. Application log files named outside of standard conventions.
B. Network bandwidth between Master Data Service server and database server.
C. CPU usage on server running the Master Data Service.
D. Master Data Service logfile verbosity setting.
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which of the following places can you NOT find the detailed descriptions for the
Initiate Java SDK
methods and parameters?
A. In the doc directory included with the Java SDK installation software.
B. The Java SDK Reference Guide document that was included with your software.
C. Infocenters
D. By pressing F1 (Help) in the Initiate I.D.E. for Java.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following DOES NOT represent a valid store of Initiate knowledge that can
be referenced
for troubleshooting?
A. Knowledge Base on website
B. Infocenters (online product documentation library)
C. online training courses
D. LDAP repository
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which tab in Initiate Inspector should be selected when you need to unlink a Record
from an Entity.?
A. Records
B. Attribute History
C. Linkage Details
D. Relationships
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your customer reports a performance problem with the Master Data Engine using an
Oracle database.
Which of the following materials are needed to diagnose the performance problem?
A. Oracle AWR (Automatic Workload Repository) report
B. Master Data Engine logs with MAD_TIMER logging enabled
C. Entity Manager logs with MAD_TIMER logging enabled
D. all of the above
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Exam Code: C6010-G40
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Enterprise+ (SCE+) Sales Mastery Test
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NO.1 Which two hardware server standards does IBM use to deliver SmartCloud Enterprise+?
(Choose two.)
A.System z
B.System p
C.System i
D.System x
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What is the maximum service level IBM provides for managing a hosted environment?
A.storage
B.application
C.hypervisor
D.operating system
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two geographical locations were first used to deliver the SCE+ offering? (Choose two.)
A.Raleigh, North Carolina
B.Tokyo, Japan
C.Ehningen, Germany
D.London, UK
E.Boulder, Colorado
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which feature is a roadmap item for the SCE+ offering?
A.disaster recovery
B.virtual machine provisioning
C.hybrid cloud integration
D.iSeries operating systems
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is an allowable option for a customer to modify a virtual machine (VM)?
A.add memory
B.change the operating system
C.move to a different physical server
D.export to its on-premise environment
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is a client benefit to provisioning in SCE+?
A.time in days versus weeks
B.the ability to host the cloud in a customer data center
C.use of mainframe technology
D.the ability to use a private image
Answer: A

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NO.7 A sales professional needs to change the price of a virtual machine (VM).Which option should
the sales professional adjust?
A.European Union labor adder
B.number of virtual machines
C.virtual private network (VPN)
D.data center location
Answer: A

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NO.8 How does a customer notify IBM of a problem?
A.submitting a service request in the SCE+ portal
B.registering the problem with its IBM account representative
C.sending a monitoring alert to the IBM delivery team
D.opening a ticket with its internal help desk
Answer: A

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Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino Sales Mastery Test v3
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NO.1 Which of the following common phrases that you should be prepared to address are NOT
likely to be heard when calling on existing Notes and Domino customers?
A. I'd like to pay more for software licenses, please.
B. Didn't IBM just kill Lotus?
C. I have an old version of Notes and it's working fine.
D. Notes is too expensive and I don't see the value of it.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which one of the following features is NOT new in IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition?
A. A Click on URLs in edit mode
B. Paste As Plain Text
C. New shortcut keys like Ctrl+Shift+R for "Reply to All"
D. Ability to import spreadsheet data into a view
Answer: C

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Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/au/pdf/CCTY_2013_Whats_New_in_IBM_Domino_
Notes_and_iNotes_9_Social_Edition.pdf

NO.3 Embedded experiences is best defined in the Notes client as:
A. A The capability to attach large files to your emails
B. The ability to import spreadsheet data into a view
C. The ability to deploy the Notes client via a hybrid configuration
D. The ability to view content, as well as respond socially, all in the context of your inbox
Answer: A

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NO.4 A Processor Value Unit is linked to:
A. How much capacity a server can handle due to the number of its processor cores
B. How much capacity a server can handle due to the amount of RAM the server has installed
C. The value of a server due to the operating system cost
D. The value of a server due to the net price of the server hardware
Answer: A

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NO.5 With regards to Notes and Domino licensing, the term CAL refers to:
A. Code Application Language
B. Core Activity Linkage
C. Client Access License
D. Client Anchor Logic
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/lotus/notesanddomino/licensing.html

NO.6 When speaking of the current state of IBM Notes and Domino momentum, which of the
following statement is NOT true?
A. IBM Notes and Domino still maintains a large percentage of email market share
B. Notes is dead
C. IBM Notes and Domino have delivered new features each and every year since 2007
D. IBM Notes and Domino have over 50,000 customers
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which one of the following best describes hybrid deployment for our software customers?
A. Software deployed both as an on premise solution as well as in the cloud
B. Utilizing highly energy efficient servers to save customers' electricity costs
C. Being able to run on a wide variety of operating systems
D. Backwards compatible databases that run on past versions of our software releases
Answer: A

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A. Faster decision-making by getting the answer instantly from a colleague via chat
B. Increased costs from deploying high network bandwidth chat capability
C. Improved customer engagement by improved responsiveness
D. Reduced travel costs from online e-meetings instead of face-to-face meetings
Answer: B

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NO.1 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the
Managed Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new
application.
What should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints
across a company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification
Server is slower during the inventory scan times.
Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to reduce the processing impact on the
Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weeklyschedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog.
There is a duplicate for a software resource.
The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and selected the
option to merge duplicate resources.
What will happen to the duplicate entries in the Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the
duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate isdeleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the
newest timestamp isdeleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry
with the oldest timestamp isdeleted.
Answer: B

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NO.5 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be
updated. Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have
been updated, the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the
database.
However, after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an
old date instead of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because
several policies were modified at the sametime.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though
the agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire
2099" has been installed on company desktops.
The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the company standard browser
toolbar and needs to be removed immediately.
The administrator has also been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that
they can receive a private email about the situation.
Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an
application.B.Inventory Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application isexecuted.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application
from running on company computers.
Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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NO.8 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight
Alert Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running.
Which policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.1 Examine these Data Pump commands to import objects to non-existent users hr1 and oe1.
S expdp system/manager Schemas =hr,oe directory =EXP_ DIR include = table
$ impdp system/manager Schemas = hr1,oe1 Directory = EXP_DIR Dumpfile = export.dat
Remap_schema =hr:hr1,oe :oe1
What would be achieved by running the above commands?
A. expdp will fail because no path has been defined for the dumpfile.
B. expdp will succeed but Impdp will fail because users do not exist.
C. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import all objects to the new schemas
D. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import tables owned by hr and oe schemas to
hr1 and oe1 schemas, respectively.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It bypasses the OS file system cache.
B. A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C. It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D. File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct
NFS.
E. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS
driver.
Answer: A,E

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Direct NFS provides faster performance that what can be provided by the operating system's NFS
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NO.3 You issued the following commands to configure settings in RMAN:
RMAN> CONFIGURE DEVICE TYPE sbt PARALLELISM 1;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DEFAULT DEVICE TYPE TO Sbt;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE sbt TO 2;
RMAN> CONFIGURE ARCHIVELOG BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE sbt TO 2;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE DISK TO 2;
Then you issued the following command to take the backup:
RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;
Which statement is true about the execution of the above command?
A. The backup will terminate because the FORMAT clause was not configured for the channel
B. It backs up two copies of data files to tape and disk, and two copies of archived log file on tape
C. It backs up the data files and archived log files to disk, making two copies of each data file and
archived logfile
D. It backs up the data files and archived log files to tape, making two copies of each data file and
archived logfile
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are managing a 24*7 database. The backup strategy for the database is to perform
user-managedbackups.
Identify two prerequisites to perform the backups. (Choose two.)
A. The database must be opened in restricted mode.
B. The database must be configured to run in ARCHIVELOG mode.
C. The tablespaces are required to be in backup mode before taking the backup.
D. The tablespaces are required to be in read-only mode before taking the backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 You have set the value of the NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT parameter to YYYY-MMDD. The
default format of which two data types would be affected by this setting?
A. DATE
B. TIMESTAMP
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 You want to track and store all transactional changes to a table over its lifetime.
To accomplish this task, you enabled Flashback Data Archive with the retention of 5 years.
After some time, the business requirement changed and you were asked to change the
retention from 5 years to 3 years.
To accomplish this, you issued the following command:
ALTER FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fla1 MODIFY RETENTION 3 YEAR;
What is the implication of this command?
A. The command produces an error because the retention time cannot be reduced.
B. All historical data is retained but the subsequent flashback data archives are maintained for only
three years.
C. All historical data is purged and the new flashback data archives are maintained for three years.
D. All historical data older than three years is purged from the flashback archive FLA1.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Identify two options that Oracle recommends while configuring the backup and recovery
environment for your recovery catalog. (Choose two.)
A. configuring control file autobackup to be ON
B. backing up data filed only and not the archived redo log files
C. running the recovery catalog database in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
D. setting the retention policy to a REDUNDANCY value greater than 1
E. backing up the recovery catalog to the same disk as that of the target database
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which data dictionary view would you query to find the name of the default permanent
tablespace of the database?
A. DICTIONARY
B. DBA_TABLESPACES
C. DBA_DIRECTORIES
D. DBA_STORED_SETTINGS
E. DATABASE_PROPERTIES
F. DBA_TABLESPACE_GROUPS
Answer: E

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NO.1 The client seeks to reduce cost and complexity in a highly virtualized x86 environment. They
want the network policies to migrate automatically along with mobile virtual machines to ensure
that security, performance and access remains intact as virtual machines move from server to server.
VMware is their virtualization standard. Which option will provide a complete solution?
A. Switches capable to support 802.1 QBG
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V on IBM VMready Switches
C. IBM Switch-resident IBM VMready capability
D. IBM Software Defined Networking (SDN) for Virtual
Answer: D

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NO.2 A client has a need for a Linux based solution that requires a large amount of memory. The
application runs on either x86 or Power nodes. Which of the following nodes would provide the
maximum memory configuration?
A. p460
B. x440
C. p24L
D. x240
Answer: B

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NO.3 A large enterprise client wants to perform a benchmark on a PureFlex System to compare the
performance against a competitive solution. What is the best way for the client to proceed?
A. Try and Buy a PureFlex System and let the client perform the benchmark
B. Lease a PureFlex System from a Business Partner and have the Partner perform the benchmark
C. Invite the client to the local IBM Client Center (ICC) and have the ICC perform the benchmark
D. Visit an IBM Products and Solutions Support Center (PSSC) and have the PSSC perform the
benchmark
Answer: D

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NO.4 A client has a number of Power servers that are virtualized and boot from FC SAN with dual
VIO servers. The client is considering consolidation of server and network hardware (LAN and SAN)
while maximizing the return on investment by leveraging existing shared FC storage. Which option
meets the client requirements?
A. Utilize FCoE to boot the VIO servers
B. Utilize iSCSI to boot the VIO servers
C. Continue to use FC SAN for the VIO servers
D. Use a pair of internal drives to provide for the VIO servers
Answer: A

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NO.5 A client wants to see how the 900 GB 10k drives would be used in a RAID 5 set to migrate their
30 TB of storage. Which tool can the technical expert use to show the layout for Flex System V7000
Storage Node?
A. Disk Magic
B. Capacity Magic
C. TCOnow! for Disk
D. IBM Flex System TCO Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.6 A client has a PureFlex system and needs to upgrade their Flex System V7000 Storage
Node. Which interface would be used to accomplish this?
A. FSM
B. BIOS upgrade
C. Chassis Manager
D. Flex Node Interface GUI
Answer: A

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NO.7 The client has three independent redundant SAN fabrics: One for development, one for
validation and one for production. The client will use a chassis with x240 nodes to connect these
SAN fabrics. What is the best solution for the client?
A. Use two CN4054 adapters and two EN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
B. Use two CN4058 adapters and two CN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
C. Use two CN4058 adapters and four EN4093 switches, each with one FoD enhancement
D. Use one CN4054 adapter, LOM, and four CN4093 switches with FoD enhancements throughout
Answer: D

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NO.8 On a PureFlex system, how can an FSM be recovered if the management software is
inoperable because of misconfiguration or corruption, but the management node hardware is
operational and the hard drives have not failed?
A. Call smcli restore from the FSM CLI to restore the FSM
B. Call IBM Support and request a replacement of the FSM ITE
C. Connect to the Internet, download a new FSM image and install it over the IMM connection to
the FSM
D. Boot while pressing F12 and select the recovery partition as the boot device, then run a full
system recovery
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which step must be completed before running the installation wizard for IBM Connections
4.0?
A. disconnect all database connections
B. install IBM Cognos Business Intelligence
C. stop IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Manager
D. start IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 If the administrator wants the IBM Lotus Quickr Connectors to install without prompting the
user at
all, what should be included after qkrconn.exe /install?
A. /quiet
B. /silent
C. /noask
D. /noprompt
Answer: A

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NO.3 If the administrator needs to fix an IBM Lotus Quickr place, the QPTOOL server command can
be
used to lock it. What is the correct syntax to lock a place?
A. load qptoollock placename
B. load qptool placename lock
C. load qptool lock placename
D. load qptool lock -p placename
Answer: D

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NO.4 By default, which address accesses the IBM Cognos server Content Manager?By default, which
address accesses the IBM Cognos server? Content Manager?
A. http://Host_Name/Context_Root/servlet
B. http://Host_Name:Port/Context_Root/servlet
C. http://Host_Name:Port/Context_Root/cognos
D. http://Host_Name:Port/CongosServer/Context_Root/servlet
Answer: B

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NO.5 What could improve chat performance in a large deployment?
A. decrease the IBM WebSphere logging level
B. add more servers to the Meeting server cluster
C. separate the Media Manager components into individual servers
D. increase the MaxUsersPort setting in the Microsoft Windows server registry
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does not require a connection with the IBM Sametime Media server?
A. IBM DB2
B. Sametime Proxy server
C. Sametime Meeting server
D. Sametime System Console
Answer: B

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NO.7 Along with Login ID, which two options are required so that a developer can use the User SPI
to
retrieve more information about a person? (Choose two.)
A. Title
B. Address
C. Date of Birth
D. E-mail Address
E. Unique User ID
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 How would an administrator rebuild the placecatalog.nsf database on an IBM Lotus Quickr
server?
A. run the command load qptool rebuild -placecatalog
B. run the command load qptool recreate -placecatalog
C. bring down the server, delete the placecatalog.nsf database at the operating system level, and
restart the server
D. log into Lotus Quickr using a browser, go to the Site Administration link, and click the Recreate
PlaceCatalog button
Answer: C

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NO.1 How can Kenexa's Performance Management solutions improve the way organizations are
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A. Provide access to standard appraisals
B. Built in standard goal setting
C. Functionality that allows a manager to determine pay increases based on performance
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Answer: D

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NO.2 The Kenexa LMS (Learning Management System) performs all of the following capabilities
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B. Automate the development and publishing of modular personalized learning
C. Administrate content and courses in support of a classroom, online or social learning
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D. Track and report on curriculum status for a learner
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the most important benefit of having a Performance Management system for an
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pay programs with linkages to performance
B. The ability to compare candidates side-by-side for fair and accurate analyses
C. The ability to have an integrated process that supports and provides insight into performance
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D. The ability to configure any number of performance forms to any process
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a typical deal size for a Performance Management solution?
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C. S300to$400k
D. $400to$500k
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B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Answer: B

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C. 6 to 9 Months
D. 9 to 12 Months
Answer: A

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