2014年4月30日星期三

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Exam Code: 250-311
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 for Windows
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Exam Code: ST0-099
Exam Name: Symantec Enterprise Vault 9.0(STS)
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Exam Code: ST0-050
Exam Name: Symantec Network Access Control 11 (STS)
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NO.1 Which fivecomponents are incorporated in Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Choose five.)
A. antispam
B. application and device control
C. full disk encryption
D. host integrity
E. antivirus
F. antispyware
G. content filtering
H. intrusion prevention
I. client firewall
J. asset management
Answer: BEFHI

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Inheritance is turned on for groups LLSCO, Group A, Laptops, and Group 2 (outlined).
Without turning inheritance off, which top level group must be modified to affect users in the Laptop
group?
A. Desktops
B. Laptops
C. Group 1
D. Group A
Answer: C

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NO.3 A computer is configured in Mixed Control mode. The administrator creates and applies a firewall policy
to the computer that has a rule that allows FTP trafficabove the blue line and another rule that blocks
LDAP traffic below the blue line. On the computer, local rules are created to allow LDAP trafficand block
FTP.
Which traffic flow behavior should be expected on the local computer?
A. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare allowed.
B. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare blocked.
C. FTP is blocked and LDAP is allowed.
D. FTP is allowed and LDAP is blocked.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Lifeline Supply Company found during a recent audit that the current security solution for
theirdesktops and servers missed several rootkitswithin their environment. These rootkits have
compromised several company computers.
Which protection technology in Symantec Endpoint Protection could remediate these rootkits?
A. Host Integrity
B. Antivirus and Antispyware Protection
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Application and Device Control
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which page is used to create login accounts to the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager console?
A. Policies
B. Home
C. Admin
D. Clients
Answer: A

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NO.6 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THEEXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec Corporation
the Exam materials, questions or Answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this
Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written correspondence or
agreements between the parties with respect thereto.
If you ACCEPT the termsand conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If
you DO NOT ACCEPT this Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed
with this exam.
Answer.pending

NO.7 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THE EXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec
Corporation the Exam materials, questions or answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written
correspondence or agreements between the parties with respect thereto. If you ACCEPT the termsand
conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If you DO NOT ACCEPT this
Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed with this exam.
Answer. pending

NO.8 The Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager supports the use of which database solutions?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
E. Oracle Database 9i
Answer: AC

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Exam Code: 250-530
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Network Access Control 12.1
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Exam Code: ASC-094
Exam Name: ASC Storage Management Assessment
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Exam Code: ST0-192
Exam Name: Symantec Technical Foundations:Security Solutions 2.0 Technical Assessment
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NO.1 In which order must the tasks be performed to initially synchronize VVR replication using
checkpoints? .
Start replication using vradmin -c checkpoint startrep . Run "vxrvg -c checkpoint
checkstart" . Run "vxrvg checkend" . Perform a block-level backup at the primary . Restore raw backup at
the secondary
A. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C

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NO.2 Why is it important to upgrade Storage Foundation diskgroups and filesystem versions after upgrading
the version of software on a system?
A. Storage Foundation will be unable to access the files residing on diskgroups and filesystems that have
an older version than the binaries.
B. Older diskgroup and filesystem versions are only supported during a rolling upgrade.
C. Upgrading the diskgroup and filesystem versions will enable the full capabilities of the product to be
deployed.
D. It eliminates warnings being sent to the console due to the out-of-date diskgroup and filesystem
versions.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with the srlprot attribute set to override.
If there is an SRL overflow while the RLINK is connected, what happens to the running application issuing
writes.?
A. Application continues, and VVR overflows the SRL.
B. Application is blocked until SRL drains 5% or 20 megabytes, whichever is smaller.
C. Application is blocked until the RLINK is automatically detached after AutoDetach seconds have
elapsed.
D. Application continues, and VVR is automatically converted to DCM logging.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has Veritas Volume Replication (VVR) version 5.1 with the following Rlink attributes:
synchronous=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps Which statement is true?
A. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, then the
bandwidth_limit attribute will be overridden to try and maintain a synchronous copy of the data at the
secondary site.
B. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, it will
automatically fall-back to asynchronous mode to enable replication within the defined bandwidth limits.
C. VVR will throttle the write operations on the primary server in order to replicate the data
synchronously to the secondary site within the bandwidth limits. In the event of a network failure VVR will
fallback to asynchronous replication mode and the write operations on the primary server will no longer be
throttled, but the bandwidth for replicating to the secondary site will still be limited.
D. The bandwidth_limit attribute does not apply to synchronous replication, however in the event that the
rLink falls back to asynchronous mode the data will then be replicated within the defined bandwidth limits.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have been asked to review a customer's VVR configuration, and found that the Rlink has the
following attributes: srlprot=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps What is the risk to the customer's
application if the SRL overflows?
A. Application writes will be stalled which may cause the front-end application to fail or hang.
B. The bandwidth_limit will be increased so the SRL can drain, and this may overload the network and
cause application performance problems.
C. The size of the SRL will be increased, leaving less space if the application volumes need to be
extended.
D. VVR will start to use the DCM, which requires a replay of the DCM, during which, Write Order Fidelity
for the application data is lost.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with srlprot attribute set to autodcm. In
the event that the SRL overflows, what will happen?
A. VVR will delay any further writes to the primary node until the SRL has drained below the
low-watermark threshold
B. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR then
automatically replicates writes tracked by the DCM.
C. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR stops and the
DCM must be replayed manually.
D. VVR stops replicating and writes in the SRL are converted into DCM logging. The DCM must then be
replayed manually.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two components should ordinarily be configured within a Relicated Volume Group (RVG)?
(Select two.)
A. SRL
B. RDS
C. DCM
D. Diskgroup
E. Rlink
Answer: A, C

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NO.8 A customer has two identical servers that support an OLTP database and billing application, respectively.
Each night they run a batch job to create a full Volume Manager snapshot of their OLTP database, which
is then imported and mounted on the other server to support the billing application. The customer has
asked an administrator to upgrade the version of Storage Foundation on the OLTP server to version 5.1.
Which action should be taken when performing this upgrade?
A. Upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries, diskgroups, and filesystems on the OLTP server and advise
the customer to upgrade their billing system to the same version of Storage Foundation software.
B. Inform the customer that they must upgrade the OLTP and Billing servers at the same time.
C. Modify the Storage Foundation configuration to use space-saving snapshots instead of full snapshots.
D. Only upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries on the OLTP server, do not upgrade the diskgroup and
filesystem versions until after the Billing server has been upgraded.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-251
Exam Name: Administration of HA Solutions for UNIX (VCS 5.0)
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Exam Code: ST0-173
Exam Name: Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: ASC-012
Exam Name: ASC High Availablity Assessment
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NO.1 Which conditions are recommended for a successful VCS patch installation? (Choose two.)
A.The clustered application must be shut down.
B.VCS must be shut down only on the server being patched.
C.VCS must be shut down on all cluster nodes.
D.GAB and LLT must be shut down on all cluster nodes.
E.GAB and LLT must remain running and connected.
Answer:C D

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NO.2 Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A.AutoStart
B.ConfInterval
C.ConfTimeout
D.MonitorInterval
E.OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer:B D

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NO.3 Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A.Flags
B.RestartLimit
C.ToleranceLimit
D.OfflineTimeout
E.OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer:B C

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NO.4 Which text files are created at the end of a successful run of installvcs -installonly? (Choose three.)
A.log
B.response
C.gabtab
D.llttab
E.summary
Answer:A B E

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NO.5 Which attributes impact service group failover? (Choose three.)
A.FailOver
B.AutoFailOver
C.Faulted
D.FaultPropagation
E.Frozen
Answer:B D E

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NO.6 Which feature of VCS can prevent overloading of a system's resources in the event of service group
failover?
A.Parallel Service Groups
B.Capacities
C.Limits
D.Load Failover Policy
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which procedure must be followed to remove the resource type TypeA from an active VCS cluster?
A.remove all resources of TypeA, remove TypeA, and remove TypeA packages
B.remove TypeA, then execute the hatype esync command
C.stop VCS, remove all resources of TypeA, and start VCS
D.execute the hatype -remove command which will remove all the resources
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which attribute enables VCS to bring a resource online after it goes offline unexpectedly and before
faulting the resource?
A.RestartLimit
B.OnlineRestartLimit
C.AutoRestartLimit
D.OnlineRetryLimit
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 310-610
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Exam Code: 310-081
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NO.1 Which two prevent a servlet from handling requests? (Choose two.)
A.The servlet's init method returns a non-zero status.
B.The servlet's init method throws a ServletException.
C.The servlet's init method sets the ServletResponse's content length to 0.
D.The servlet's init method sets the ServletResponse's content type to null.
E.The servlet's init method does NOT return within a time period defined by the servlet container.
Answer: BE

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NO.2 Place the events in the order they occur.
Answer:

NO.3 Given a servlet OrderServlet mapped to processorder, and a form declaration in HTML:
What OrderServlet method is invoked as a result of this form submission?
A.doGet
B.doPut
C.doPost
D.doTrace
E.doSubmit
Answer: A

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NO.4 Given a servlet mapped to /control, place the correct URI segment returned as a String on the
corresponding HttpServletRequest method call for the URI: /myapp/control/processorder.

NO.5 Which two are characteristics of the Intercepting Filter pattern? (Choose two.)
A.It provides centralized request handling for incoming requests.
B.It forces resource authentication to be distributed across web components.
C.It reduces coupling between presentation-tier clients and underlying business services.
D.It can be added and removed unobtrusively, without requiring changes to existing code.
E.It allows preprocessing and postprocessing on the incoming requests and outgoing responses.
Answer: DE

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NO.6 Given:
Which retrieves the binary input stream on line 13?
A.request.getWriter();
B.request.getReader();
C.request.getInputStream();
D.request.getResourceAsStream();
E.request.getResourceAsStream(ServletRequest.REQUEST);
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two HTTP methods are used to process form data in a servlet? (Choose two.)
A.doGet
B.doPut
C.doPost
D.doTrace
E.doSubmit
F.doProcess
Answer: AC

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NO.8 Under what two circumstances is the setJspBody method NOT called in a tag class that implements the
SimpleTag interface? (Choose two.)
A.The tag is invoked without a body.
B.The doTag method throws an exception.
C.The element has the value empty.
D.The tag is called with the attribute skip-body=true.
Answer: AC

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NO.1 What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A.Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B.Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C.Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D.Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Correct:C

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NO.2 From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A.in the event of loss of power at the primary data center
B.when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system
C.in the event of litigation
D.when a user accidentally deletes an important email
Correct:C

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NO.3 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A.greater security exposure
B.lower cost infrastructure
C.can use existing network management tools
D.lower CPU overhead
Correct:B C

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NO.4 What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation
for a financial services customer?
A.data integrity
B.data redundancy
C.disk latency of less than 15ms
D.high availability
Correct:A

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NO.5 What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber with a 850nm shortwave
laser at 1 Gbps?
A.500 meters
B.300 meters
C.150 meters
D.70 meters
Correct:A

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NO.6 Which is considered tier 2 storage in a datacenter with three (3) storage tiers?
A.tape vault
B.Fibre Channel disk array with dual controllers
C.Nearline storage
D.intelligent storage virtualization
Correct:C

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NO.7 Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A.SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B.SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C.SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D.SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Correct:C

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NO.8 You no longer have any port availability in the company's switch fabric. There is a
decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the
cause of the problem?
A.The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches.
B.The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch.
C.A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding.
D.The domain priority is inconsistent.
Correct:C

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NO.1 You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive
officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team
to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing online backup
strategies. What affects time-to-create and incremental update of a copy-on-write snapshot?
A. number of files
B. number of LUNs
C. size of snap volume
D. size of LUN
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with
single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under
which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path
Answer: A

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NO.3 Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to
be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to
avoid segmentation.
B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the
second fabric.
C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second
fabric.
D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid
segmentation.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has
access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica
accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem.
The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI
gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs
multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal
to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA
B. Disk HBAs
C. Tape Drives
D. FC to SCSI Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.5 After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The
plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point
Object (RPO) of one hour. What two processes must be implemented to support this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications
B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage
C. data snapshots from the previous day
D. operating system and application reinstallation media
E. hot or warm site
Answer: A, E

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NO.6 A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics. Which could be the the cause of the
segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids
B. identical zone names
C. timeouts set to equal values
D. non-compatible interoperability modes
Answer: B

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NO.7 The storage administrator has a request to add more storage to support added features on an
application. Which two steps must be taken for the application to recognize the added storage? (Choose
two.)
A. re-scan the SCSI bus
B. enable array re-scanning
C. configure LUN masking
D. zone the host to the subsystem port
E. increase the HBA time out value
Answer: A, C

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NO.8 Which two are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports
Answer: A, E

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2014年4月29日星期二

156-815.70 Exam Dumps, 156-215-70 Bootcamp, 156-515 Test Answers

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NO.1 John is the Security Administrator in his company He installs a new R70 Security Management Server
and a new R70 Gateway He now wants to establish SIC between them.After entering the activation key,
the message "Trust established" is displayed in SmartDashboard, but SIC still does not seem to work
because the policy won't install and interface fetching still does not work.What might be a reason for this?
A.This must be a human error.
B.The Gateway's time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
C.SIC does not function over the network.
D.It always works when the trust is established.
Answer: B

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NO.2 In previous version, the full TCP three-way handshake was sent to the firewall kernel for inspection.How
is this improved in current Flows/SecureXL?
A.Only the initial SYN packet is inspected The rest are handled by IPSO
B.Packets are offloaded to a third-party hardware card for near-line inspection
C.Packets are virtualized to a RAM drive-based FW VM
D.Resources are proactively assigned using predictive algorithmic techniques
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided
A.by authentication.
B.by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric-key encryption.
C.by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption.
D.via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A.fw stat
B.cpstat -gw
C.fw ver
D.tw printver
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are you required to do before running upgrade__ export?
A.Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.
B.Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server
C.Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.
D.Close all GUI clients
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 You are installing your R70Security Gateway.Which is NOT a valid option for the hardware platform?
A.Crossbeam
B.Solaris
C.Windows
D.IPSO
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker How can you view
the blocked addresses'?
A.Run f wm blockedview.
B.In SmartView Monitor, select the Blocked Intruder option from the query tree view
C.In SmartView Monitor, select Suspicious Activity Rules from the Tools menu and select the relevant
Security Gateway from the list
D.In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab.and the actively blocked connections displays
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are installing a Security Management Server Your security plan calls for three administrators for this
particular server.How many can you create during installation'?
A.Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B.Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C.One
D.As many as you want
Answer: C

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NO.1 The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Answer: A

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NO.2 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.5 You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40,
and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is
HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
Answer: D

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NO.6 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not
encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.7 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool
would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.8 If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum
number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Answer: D

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NO.1 When backing up SharePoint Server data using the CA ARCserve Backup Agent for Microsoft
SharePoint, how is the backup initiated?
A. SharePoint Server sends a request to the Agent for Microsoft SharePoint.
B. The Agent for Microsoft SharePoint sends a request to SharePoint Server.
C. CA ARCserve Backup Server sends a request to the Agent for Microsoft SharePoint.
D. The Agent for Microsoft SharePoint sends a request to CA ARCserve Backup Server.
Answer: C

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NO.2 To enable enhanced User Profile Manager, role management, and Windows account support,
on
the primary server, you need to install the CA ARCserve Backup:
A. Standard module.
B. Advanced module.
C. Enterprise module.
D. Enterprise Plus module.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement about Restore by Image is TRUE?
A. It is included in all CA ARCserve Backup r16 modules.
B. The Restore by Image sessions can be restored to network drives.
C. During a Restore by Image session, files can be open but they are still overwritten.
D. Selecting multiple sources is only permitted when using the Restore to Original Location option.
Answer: D

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NO.4 After you complete the Diagnostic Wizard in the CA ARCserve Backup Diagnostic Utility, a file
is
created. In which GUI do you view this file?
A. Report Manager
B. Job Status Manager
C. Diagnostic Log Manager
D. Diagnostic Report Manager
Answer: D

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NO.5 How can you limit the servers that are authorized to perform backups on a Windows client
agent
object?
A. Configure password security.
B. Set the Backup Priority to High.
C. Generate an access control list (ACL).
D. Change the port number used by the agent.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Some application programs can cache file writes on the workstation on which they are run.
How
can you prevent resulting data integrity issues when using the Agent for Open Files?
A. Disable retry mechanisms in your backup program.
B. Enable Extended Features in the Agent for Open Files.
C. Configure the application, if possible, to prevent write caching.
D. Enable Auto Sense in the Sync Method section of the Agent for Open Files.
Answer: C

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NO.1 A container or application server can optimize performance by pooling EJBs that are considered to be
identical. Which or these parameters can be used to control the size of this EJB pool?
A.<max-beans-in-free-pool>
B.<max-beans-in-pool>
C.<beans-in-free-pool>
D.<max-beans-in-initial-pool>
Answer: A

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NO.2 A system exception is one that indicates that the business method of an EJB was prevented from
successfully executing because of some system-level error. Which of these statements is true about a
system exception?
A.It is a subclass of RemoteException or RuntimeException
B.It is propagated to clients as a RemoteException
C.It is caught and logged by the container
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of these session parameters would impact the performance of a Web Application?
i. InvalidationIntervalSecs
ii. TimeoutSecs
iii. CacheSize
A.i
B.ii, iii
C.i, ii, iii
D.i, ii
Answer: C

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NO.4 Transaction configuration can have a big impact on the performance of EJBs. Which of these
statements is true?
i. Too many fine-grain transactions generate excessive traffic to transaction and resource managers ii.
Too many coarse-grain transactions may block other clients accessing the same resources
A.i
B.ii
C.i, ii
D.None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 A reliable WebLogic web service provides which of the following delivery assurances?
A.AtLeastOnce
B.ExactlyOnce
C.MostlyOnce
D.AtMostOnce
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Entity bean activation involves
A.EJB Container providing a primary key identity to a pooled EJB
B.EJB Container moves an EJB from secondary storage to main memory
C.EJB Container creates a new EJB instance and adds to the active pool
D.None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a reliable web service method is invoked asynchronously, which of these scenarios will happen?
A.The results will be sent back in the same reliable sequence as the method invocation
B.The results will be sent back in another reliable sequence
C.The results will not be sent in a reliable sequence
D.None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the command to create a new web application archive (.war) file?
A.jar -Mvf someArchive.war *
B.jar -tvf someArchive.war *
C.jar -vf someArchive.war *
D.jar -cvf someArchive.war *
Answer: D

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NO.1 The SMB protocol is used to _____________.
A. establish video conferences between users of the Messages application
B. share screens between Mac users
C. send email messages from Windows computers
D. provide Windows users access to shared files
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which protocol does OS X use to print to a printer shared by a Windows computer?
A. PPTP
B. L2TP
C. LPD
D. SMB
Answer: C

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A. SMTP transfers outgoing email from the sender's mail server to the recipient's mail server.
B. SMTP provides the mail server with user account information, including the user ID and email
address for arequested user account.
C. SMTP translates IP addresses into domain names, and vice versa.
D. SMTP transfers incoming email from the recipient's mail server to the recipient's local mailbox.
Answer: A

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A. the Exchange email address and password
B. the Exchange email address and password, and the Exchange Server IP address or domain name
C. the Exchange email address and password, the Exchange Server IP address or domain name, and
the Exchangeserver admin account name
D. the Exchange email address
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which messaging protocol does Messages in OS X Mountain Lion support?
A. IRC
B. MSNP
C. SMS
D. XMPP
Answer: D

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NO.6 In OS X Mountain Lion, which of these can you use to set a firmware password?
A. The Users & Groups pane of System Preferences
B. The Security pane of System Preferences
C. The Firmware Password utility in /System/Library/CoreServices/
D. The Firmware Password utility on the Recovery partition
Answer: D

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NO.7 In addition to Mail, which THREE other applications can you use to set up a new account to
access a Microsoft Exchange Server? (Select 3)
A. System Preferences
B. Messages
C. Contacts
D. Keychain Access
E. Directory Utility
F. Calendar
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.8 You configured a Mac with OS X Mountain Lion to share its connected USB printer over the
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A. The printer needs to be selected in the Print Sharing control panel on the Windows computer.
B. The Windows computer hasn't been upgraded with the appropriate Service Pack.
C. Apple Print Services for Windows hasn't been installed on the Windows computer.
D. OS X Mountain Lion doesn't support sharing printers with Windows computers.
Answer: D

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NO.1 When using FTK Imager to preview a physical drive, which number is assigned to the first logical
volume of an extended partition?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: D

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NO.2 In FTK, which search broadening option allows you to find grammatical variations of the word "kill" such
as "killer," "killed," and "killing"?
A.Phonic
B.Synonym
C.Stemming
D.Fuzzy Logic
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of evidence can be added to FTK Imager?
A.individual files
B.all checked items
C.contents of a folder
D.all currently listed items
Answer: C

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NO.4 When previewing a physical drive on a local machine with FTK Imager, which statement is true?
A.FTK Imager can block calls to interrupt 13h and prevent writes to suspect media.
B.FTK Imager can operate from a USB drive, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
C.FTK Imager can operate via a DOS boot disk, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
D.FTK Imager should always be used in conjunction with a hardware write protect device to prevent
writes to suspect media.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three items are displayed in FTK Imager for an individual file in the Properties window? (Choose
three.)
A.flags
B.filename
C.hash set
D.timestamps
E.item number
Answer: ABD

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