2014年1月31日星期五

Adobe 9A0-327 the latest exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: 9A0-327
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe CQ 5.5 Component Developer ACE Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Given the service reference properties set in a servlet:
@Properties({
@Property(name="sling.servlet.resourceType",? value="myApp/myResource"),
@Property(name="sling.servlet.selectors", value={"img","pdf"}),
@Property(name="sling.servlet.paths", ? value={"/apps/myApp/mypdf","/libs/sling/myimg"})
})
Which properties will the servlet take into consideration when it is being registered?
A. All the properties, resourceType, selectors and paths.
B. Only the sling.servlet.resourceType
C. Only the sling.servlet.selectors
D. Only the sling.servlet.paths
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which OSGi configuration settings take over precedence on start-up?
A. Any .config files from <cq-installation-dir>/crx-quickstart/launchpad/config/* on the local file
system.
B. Repository nodes with type sling:OsgiConfig under /libs/*/install.
C. Repository nodes with type sling:OsgiConfig under /apps/*/config.
D. Repository nodes with type sling:OsgiConfig under /libs/*/config.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which access control policies does the JCR Session define to manage nodes?
A. Privileges to access the JCR workspace.
B. Permissions to access the JCR repository.
C. Capabilities to traverse the JCR repository.
D. A list of node locks in the JCR workspace.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which is the correct JSP Tag Library Directive to include the standard CQ Tag Library?
A. <%@taglib prefix="cq" uri="http://www.day.com/taglibs/cq/1.0" %>
B. <%@include file="/libs/foundation/global.jsp" %>
C. <%@taglib prefix="sling" uri="http://sling.apache.org/taglibs/sling/1.0" %>
D. <%@page import ="com.day.cq.wcm.api"%>
Answer: A

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NO.5 You created a site /project/en and want to add language sites /de and /fr. What is the best
practice
to create the additional language sites?
A. Use the WCM console to copy and paste from /en.
B. Use the Language Copy tool.
C. Create a workflow with a custom process step that creates the according language pages
whenever you create a new /en page.
D. Create and download a CQ package containing the /en site. Open the zip file and rename the
/en folder to /fr or /de, then reinstall the package.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which is the correct way to get the ValueMap of a resource?
A. resourceResolver.adaptTo(ValueMap.class)
B. resource.adaptTo(ValueMap.class)
C. currentNode.getValueMap()
D. currentPage.getValueMap()
Answer: B

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NO.7 In your CQ Component script you want to read a property value which has been created with
a
design dialog. How can you get the value?
A. String data = properties.get(propertyName,"");
B. String data = currentNode.getStyleProperty(propertyName,"");
C. String data = currentPage.getStyleProperty(propertyName,"");
D. String data = currentStyle.get(propertyName,"");
Answer: D

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NO.8 When does CQ automatically create a version in a default CQ installation (author and publish
instance)?
A. When content in an author instance is modified and saved
B. When content in an author instance is activated to a publish instance
C. After building a package that includes modified and saved content in author instance
D. After saving changes to a template configuration or after saving code changes of a component
script
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the purpose of sending values as selectors in the URL instead of sending them as
query
parameters?
A. To avoid caching the response in the Web server.
B. To enable the response to be cached in the Web server.
C. To avoid creating a session object in the application server.
D. To improve security.
Answer: B

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NO.10 How do you specify dependencies for your CQ HTML client library?
A. Add a multivalue property called dependencies to the client library root node, containing the
value of the dependent client libraries' categories.
B. In the js.txt file specify the path to the client library folder where the dependent files are located.
C. Add a multivalue property called dependencies to the template definition containing the value of
the dependent client libraries root path.
D. Specify the dependencies as path attributes in the <cq:includeClientLib> tag.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CRCM
Exam Name: IFPUG (CERTIFIED REGULATORY COMPLIANCE MANAGER (CRCM))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 463 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 In a compliance program, tactical compliance procedures should be integrated into
business line procedures, such as how to deliver an Adverse Action Notice when an
application is declined. In this case:
A. Regulations should be applied consistently to procedures throughout the bank
B. Revisions to procedures should be based on compliance expertise and not mere editing
C. Providing solutions to mitigate any identified risk
D. Assisting business units in developing or revising policies and procedures to reflect
current regulatory requirements
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 A compliance professional’s responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Understanding the business units operating environment and risk tolerance
B. Performing risk assessments with the assistance of business units to determine current
risk levels and risks associated with the bank’s products, lines of business, customers, and
locations, among other factors
C. Working with business units to ensure prompt corrective action for any detected errors
D. Assisting business lines with compliance training for employees, as needed
Answer: D

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NO.3 should include basic elements designed to understand and mitigate risk.
It usually includes:
Written program
Compliance-related policies and procedures
A. Tactical Compliance procedure
B. Rank solution
C. Compliance program
D. None of these
Answer: C

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NO.4 To be effective, compliance risk management professionals must design a framework to
ensure that bank management understands the risks and the steps that must be taken to
mitigate them. The many roles compliance professionals fill incorporate risk management
aspects including:
A. Coordinating regulatory exams to explain risks to examiners
B. Overseeing compliance training targeting higher risk areas
C. Tracking regulatory proposals and final rules to understand new risks
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.5 They also embrace the concept of risk-based compliance management. They expect
compliance management to be tailored to the bank, be it large or small, offering standard
or specialty financial services, simple or complex products lines, and adjusted as
appropriate for the customer base as that issued for the Bank Secrecy Act, also
establishes their expectations that a bank’s program be risk based. Who are they?
A. Outsourcing firms
B. Foreign financial service providers
C. Bank regulatory agencies
D. Risk management organizations
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 040-444
Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Registered Clinical Exercise Physiologist)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 370 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 .rteries are large-diameter vessels that carry blood away from the heart. As they course through
the body, they progressively decrease in size until they become
A. Arterioles.
B. Anastomoses.
C. Venules.
D. Veins.
Answer: A

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NO.2 .Functions of bone include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Support for the body.
B. Protection of organs and tissues.
C. Production of red blood cells.
D. Production of force.
Answer: D

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NO.3 .Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the "power position" used for lifting with proper
body mechanics?
A. Shoulders slouched.
B. Back straight.
C. Body bent forward from the hips.
D. Knees slightly bent.
Answer: A

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NO.4 .In the organization of skeletal muscle, the muscle cell contains the contractile proteins.
Which of the following is a contractile protein?
A. Myosin.
B. Muscle fascicle.
C. Myofibril.
D. Muscle fiber.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .An abnormal curve of the spine with lateral deviation of the vertebral column is called
A. Lordosis.
B. Scoliosis.
C. Kyphosis.
D. Primary curve.
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Slapping of the foot during heel strike and increased knee and hip flexion during swing are
characteristic of
A. Weakness in the gluteusmedius and minimus.
B. Weakness in the quadricepsfemoris.
C. Weakness in theplantarflexors.
D. Weakness in thedorsiflexors.
Answer: D

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NO.7 .The intervertebral disks have which of the following characteristics?
A. Calcified outer ring.
B. Gelatinous inner nucleus portion.
C. Gray matter surrounding the neural cell bodies.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.8 .Angular motion occurs when
A. A force is applied off-center to a freely- moveable object.
B. A freely-movable object moves in a straight line when a force is applied on-center.
C. An object is free to move only in a linear path.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.9 .Which of the following will increase stability?
A. Lowering the center of gravity.
B. Raising the center of gravity.
C. Decreasing the base of support.
D. Moving the center of gravity farther from the edge bf the base of support.
Answer: A

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NO.10 .A client in your exercise class has been complaining of back pain with no ridiculer symptoms. This
person has been treated medically and is now joining the exercise program to improve flexibility in
the low back. Which exercise would be most appropriate for this person to address the stated
goal?
A. Hip flexor stretch.
B. Knee-to-chest stretch.
C. Gastrocnemius stretch.
D. Lateral trunk stretch.
Answer: B

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NO.11 .Blood from the peripheral anatomy flows to the heart through the superior and inferior venae
cavae into the
A. Right atrium.
B. Left atrium.
C. Right ventricle.
D. Left ventricle.
Answer: A

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NO.12 .The C-shaped cartilages of the trachea allow all of the following to occur EXCEPT
A. Ciliated movement of mucus-secreting cells.
B. Distention of the esophagus.
C. Maintenance of open airway.
D. Prevention of tracheal collapse during pres- sure changes.
Answer: A

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NO.13 .The arm is capable of performing all of the following motions EXCEPT
A. Flexion.
B. Abduction.
C. Inversion.
D. Supination.
Answer: C

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NO.14 .Standard sites for the measurement of skinfolds include the
A. Medial thigh.
B. Biceps.
C. Infrailiac.
D. Forearm.
Answer: B

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NO.15 .The law of inertia
A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to con-tinue
to stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on by an outside
force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is also
doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite and equal
to the first force.
Answer: A

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NO.16 .A baseball pitcher has been complaining of weakness in the lateral rotation motions of the
shoulder. You have been asked to evaluate him for a strengthening program. Which of the
following muscles would you have him concentrate on strengthening?
A. Subscapularis.
B. Teres major.
C. Latissimus dorsi.
D. Teres minor.
Answer: D

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NO.17 .The prime movers for extension of the knee are the
A. Bicepsfemoris.
B. Bicepsbrachii.
C. Quadricepsfemoris.
D. Gastrocnemius.
Answer: C

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NO.18 .Which type of musculoskeletal lever is most common?
A. First-class.
B. Second-class.
C. Third-class.
D. Fourth-class.
Answer: C

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NO.19 .Who first described that a body immersed in fluid is buoyed up with a force equal to the
weight of the displaced fluid?
A. Einstein.
B. Freud.
C. Whitehead.
D. Archimedes.
Answer: D

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NO.20 .Blood leaving the heart to be oxygenated in the lungs must first pass through the right atrium and
ventricle. Through which valve does blood flow when moving from the right atrium to the right
ventricle?
A. Bicuspid valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Pulmonic valve.
D. Aortic valve.
Answer: B

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NO.21 .All of the following statements are true regarding long bones EXCEPT
A. Thediaphysis is composed of compact bone.
B. The epiphysis consists of spongy bone.
C. Most bones of the axial skeleton are of this type.
D. The central shaft encases themedullary canal.
Answer: C

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NO.22 .In second-class lever,
A. The Axis is located between the effort force and the resistance.
B. The resistance is located between the effort force and the axis.
C. The effort force is located between the resistance and the axis.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.23 .A standard site for the measurement of circumfer- ences is the
A. Abdomen.
B. Neck.
C. Wrist.
D. Ankle.
Answer: A

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NO.24 .Running is a locomotor activity similar to walking but with some differences. In comparison to
walking, running requires greater
A. Balance.
B. Muscle strength.
C. Range of motion.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.25 .Which of the following is considered to be a "balland-socket" joint?
A. Ankle.
B. Elbow.
C. Knee.
D. Hip.
Answer: D

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NO.26 .Cartilage is categorized as which of the following types of connective tissue?
A. Loose.
B. Dense.
C. Fluid.
D. Supporting.
Answer: D

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NO.27 .The most common site used for measurement of the pulse during exercise is the
A. Popliteal.
B. Femoral.
C. Radial.
D. Dorsalis pedis.
Answer: C

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NO.28 .Which of the following bones articulates proxi- mally with the sternal manubrium and distally with
the scapula and is helpful to palpate in electrode placement?
A. Scapula.
B. Sternum.
C. Clavicle.
D. Twelfth rib.
Answer: C

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NO.29 .Pain caused by low back muscle guarding and spasm in the absence of signs of disk herniation is
often treated with muscle stretching. Which of the following is (are) helpful stretching activities for
the low back?
A. Knee to chest.
B. Double-knee to chest.
C. Lower trunk rotation.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.30 .Which of the following is the ability of a force to cause rotation of a lever?
A. Center of gravity.
B. Base of support.
C. Torque.
D. Stability.
Answer: C

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Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which is a common physical symptom of stress?
A. You are more susceptible to colds.
B. You rarely take lunch breaks.
C. You work longer hours.
D. Your colleagues all seem busy.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their Incident?
A. Closed questions.
B. Open questions.
C. Technical questions.
D. Personal questions.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following techniques is the best one for reducing and eliminating conflict during a call?
A. Match the customer attitude.
B. Refrain from interrupting the customer.
C. Stop using the customer name.
D. Tell the customer you feel sorry for them.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your help desk/Service Desk wishes to become a model for best practice, what is one of the main
sources of excellent information and advice to help achieve this?
A. A web master magazine.
B. Senior management meetings.
C. Knowledge Centred Support.
D. The marketing department.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What information must be logged for every Incident?
A. A corrected version of the customer description of the Incident.
B. A note aboutthe customer preferred desksidetechnician.
C. Any commitments made to the customer.
D. Your opinion about the customer technical expertise.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a benefit of teamwork?
A. Better time management.
B. Higher employee morale.
C. Improved conformity.
D. Increased competition.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the best way of using silent time effectively?
A. Build a rapport with your customer.
B. Check your e-mail.
C. Identify the best time for your break.
D. Write an e-mail to a colleague.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the best description of your role in supporting customers?
A. Avoid confrontation at all costs.
B. Deliver consistent, high quality support.
C. Escalate calls as appropriate.
D. Minimise talk time.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What factor is most important in determining the priority of an Incident?
A. The caller connection to the Service Desk.
B. The caller emotional state.
C. The Incident impact on the business.
D. The Incident impact on the Service Desk.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When you have a call that cannot be resolved, what is the last step you will take prior to disengaging
from the customer?
A. Confirm the details provided by the customer.
B. Determine the priority of the Incident.
C. Set the customer expectation for the next contact.
D. Verify the customer eligibility for service.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is a best practice to follow when documenting an Incident?
A. Always take a break before you write anything down.
B. Avoid making negative references about the customer in the documentation.
C. Make sure that others know how the customer treated you by documenting the interaction.
D. Use emoticons to communicate the personality of a customer.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is a best practice for reducing conflict?
A. Agree with the customer.
B. Interject your opinion into the conversation.
C. Let the customer know that you are in charge.
D. Show the customer respect.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which statement best describes a good leader?
A. Good leaders demonstrate absolute control over their teams.
B. Good leaders do not need to offer incentives.
C. Good leaders encourage initiative.
D. Good leaders make all the decisions for their staff.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is a best practice for demonstrating personal accountability in your work.?
A. Blame others for mistakes.
B. Never admit that you made a mistake.
C. Perform your duties in a manner that meets with company policy.
D. Work according to your mood.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the best reason for using a standard greeting when answering telephone calls?
A. Using a standard greeting complies with Service Desk standards.
B. Using a standard greeting ensures consistent service.
C. Using a standard greeting makes the customer feel humble.
D. Using a standard greeting prevents individuals developing their own greetings.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: BCP-621
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Designing and Deploying a BlackBerry Solution v5.0 in a IBM Lotus Domino Environment)
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which tool can be used to help control the amount of data the BlackBerry Synchronization Service
sends after an upgrade to BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 5.0 is complete? (Choose one)
A. SBInjector
B. PolcTrait
C. TraitTool
D. SBThrottle
E. SyncControl
Answer: C

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NO.2 After upgrading two Blackberry Enterprise Server instances to software version 5.0 services books and
IT polices are automatically updated and sent to BlackBerry devices running which minimum version of
BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose one)
A. 3.8 and above
B. 4.0 and above
C. 4.2 and above
D. 4.3 and above
E. 5.0 and above
Answer: B

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NO.3 Nextair Corporation has determined the hardware running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software
version 4.1.6 will be insufficient to handle version 5.0. They plan to perform a cutover upgrade using the
existing SQL database. What is an advantage of implementing this strategy? (Choose one)
A. There is no downtime for other BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 instances sharing
the same SQL database
B. They will save the cost of an additional SRP Identifier
C. There is no need to back up the database prior to upgrade
D. The SQL database must be hosted locally to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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NO.4 Management has requested that the ability to activate BlackBerry devices on the BlackBerry Enterprise
Server be restricted to approved BlackBerry device models only. What can be used to accommodate this
request? (Choose one)
A. IT Policy
B. PIN to Model Mapping
C. Enterprise Service Policy
D. Application Control Policy
E. Group Filter
Answer: C

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NO.5 One thousand BlackBerry 8830 devices have been sent to the employees in the regional offices and the
BlackBerry device users will be issued enterprise activation passwords next week.
Management would like to prevent unneeded wireless data charges. What can be done to ensure this
mass enterprise activation process uses as little wireless data as possible? (Choose one)
A. Set the 'Disable Wireless Activations' IT policy to 'True'
B. Set the 'Disable Wireless Bulk Loads' IT policy to 'True'
C. Set the 'Disable Enterprise Activation Progress' IT policy to 'True'
D. Set theisable Wireline Activations' IT policySet the ?isable Wireline Activations' IT policy to 'True'
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-871
Exam Name: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0 Developer Certified Professional Exam, Part I)
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Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Is the following statement true or false? "Each database corresponds to a single directory under data
directory, regardless of what storage engine table uses in the database"
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are a valid identifier for the user table in the mysql database.?
A. mysql.user
B. `mysql.user`
C. `mysql`.`user`
D. mysql.`user`
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following are true in relation to character set and collation relationships in MySQL?
A. A collation may belong to only one character set.
B. A collation may belong to many character sets.
C. A character set may have only one collation.
D. A character set may have many collations.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 In non-strict mode, assuming that the table city does not already exist and you execute the following
sequence of commands: CREATE TABLE city (city_name CHAR(5)) INSERT INTO city (city_name)
VALUES ('NEW YORK'), ('TOKYO'), (23+345), ('LONDON') -- Ignoring any errors or warnings that may be
issued, which values are now in the table?
A. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', '23+345', 'LONDON'
B. 'NEW Y', 'TOKYO', '23+34', 'LONDO'
C. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', ' ', 'LONDON'
D. 'NEW Y', 'TOKYO', '368', 'LONDO'
E. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', '368', 'LONDON'
Answer: D

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NO.5 You want to create two databases, test and Test. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You can create both databases because database names in MySQL are case sensitive.
B. You can create both databases when your operating system supports case sensitive directory names.
C. You can create both databases when you quote delimited the database names like `test` and `Test`.
D. You can create both databases since t and T are different in the ASCII character set.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements will return a list of all of the databases with a name that starts with
'pro'?
A. LIST DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
B. SHOW DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
C. SELECT DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
D. LIST DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
E. SHOW DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
F. SELECT DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following statements will provide a list of all of the databases with a name that starts with
'world'?
A. SELECT SCHEMA_NAME AS `Database` FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.SCHEMATA
WHERE SCHEMA_NAME LIKE 'world%'
B. SELECT SCHEMA_NAME AS `Database` FROM SCHEMATA_INFORMATION.SCHEMATA
WHERE SCHEMA_NAME LIKE 'world%'
C. SELECT NAME AS `Database` FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.DATABASE WHERE NAME
LIKE 'world%'
D. SELECT NAME AS `Database` FROM SCHEMATA_INFORMATION.DATABASE WHERE
NAME LIKE 'world%'
Answer: A

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NO.8 Consider the following:
Which of the quoted values below will be returned for the name field in the SELECT results?
A. ' Tom'
B. ' Tom '
C. 'Tom'
D. 'Tom '
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are true? Databases don't have a default character set or collation.
A. Databases don't have a default character set or collation.
B. Database have a default character set and a default collation.
C. When creating a table within a database without specifying a character set and a collation, the default
character set and collation from the database are being used.
D. If a default character set and collation are defined for a database, settings for tables defined in that
database will be ignored.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 Ignoring any warnings that may be issued, which of the following statements will delete the `world`
database and its entire contents on execution, but return no error if it doesn't exist?
A. DROP DATABASE `world` IGNORE ERRORS
B. DROP IF EXISTS DATABASE `world`
C. DROP DATABASE IF EXISTS `world`
D. DELETE DATABASE `world` IGNORE ERRORS
E. DELETE IF EXISTS DATABASE `world`
F. DELETE DATABASE IF EXISTS `world`
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C_BODI_20
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Data Integrator XI R2)
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Total Q&A: 127 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which two steps are part of the profiling configuration process? (Choose two)
A. Use the Data Quality dashboard to review high level profiler result details
B. Use the Repository Manager to create/update/delete profiler users
C. Use the Repository Manager to create the profiler repository
D. Use the Server Manager to associate the profiler repository with the job server
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Your sales order fact table load contains a reference to a customer _id not found in the customer
dimension table. How can you replace the customer_id with a default value and preserve the original
record using the Validation transform?
A. Select Exists in table
and Action On Failure I Send to Both , select For Pass, substitute with .
B. Select Exists in table
and Action On Failure I Send to Fail , select For Pass, substitute with .
C. Select In
option and Action On Failure I Send to Both , select For pass, substitute with .
D. Select In
option and Action On Failure I Send to Fail , select For pass, substitute with .
Answer: A

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NO.3 Where do you specify the error file to capture flat file format errors?
A. File Format Editor
B. Properties of the Data Flow
C. Server Manager Tool
D. Trace Options of the Job
Answer: A

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NO.4 How do you associate a repository with the Management Console?
A. Open the Server Manager and select Edit Job Server Config | Add Repository
B. Open the Server Manager and select Edit Server Group Config| Add Repository
C. Open Web Administrator and select Management |Repositories | Add
D. Open the Web Administrator and select Server Groups| Server Group Config| Add Repository
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two changes to your Source Table requires you to re-import the metadata?
(Choose two)
A. Index changes
B. New records added
C. Table structure changes
D. Truncated table data
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 How do you create a global variable?
A. Select Global Variables in the Job properties
B. Select Global Variables in the Work Flow properties
C. Select Tools |Variables|Global Variables in the Job workspace
D. Select Tools | Options| Project | Variables
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three types of group level permissions are available in a Secured Central Object Library?
(Choose three)
A. Full
B. Hidden
C. None
D. Read
E. Write
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 What is the correct sequence of transforms to populate a Type || Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD ||)?
A. Key_Generation, Table_Comparison.History_Preserving
B. History_Preserving, Table_Comparison.Key_Generation
C. Table_Comparison.History_Preserving, Key_Generation
D. Table_Comparison.Key_Generation, History_Preserving
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have a source table that contains fifty columns. You need to place business rules on thirty of the
columns to check the format of the source data and filter the valid and invalid records. You also want to
analyze the column values that fail. What is the recommended method you should use?
A. Use a Case transform to create two conditions that filter the invalid records
B. Use a Map_Operation transform to map valid and invalid data rules
C. Use a Validation transform and enable validation rules on the required columns
D. Use two Query transforms with different WHERE clauses to filter the invalid records
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are developing a data warehouse as part of a large development team (ten plus developers) Way
should you recommend a multi-user configuration? (Choose two)
A. Attach documentation based on object history
B. Ensure only one developer is working on a specific set of objects
C. Store table column and relationship profile data including history
D. Track the version history history of objects(audit trrail)
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which two functions can you use in a Query? (Choose two)
A. Count
B. Exec
C. Lookup_Ext
D. Sleep
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Which lookup caching method reduces the number of round trips to the translate table?
A. Demand_Load_Cache
B. No_Cache
C. Pre_Load _Cache D. Smart_Cache
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which three operations are available between a Local and Central Object Library?
(Choose three)
A. Add
B. Check In
C. Export
D. Get
E. Import
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 Which three methods can you use to create a local variable? (Choose three)
A. Select the Variables tab in the Smart Editor of a custom function
B. Select Tools | Variables | Local Variables in the Job workspace
C. Select Tools | Variables | Local Variables in the Work Flow workspace
D. Select Tools | Variables | Local Variables in the Data Flow workspace
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 How do you create multiple instances of the same Data Flow?
A. Right-click+Replicate on the Data Flow in the Local Object Library
B. Right-click_Copy/Paste Data Flow from the Job wrorkspace
C. Right-click_Copy/Paste Data Flow in the Local Object Library
D. Right-click+Replicate Data Flow from the Job workspace
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which tool must you use to manage and configure server groups?
A. Metadata Manager
B. Repository Manager
C. Server Manager
D. Web Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which three operations can Data Integrator push down to the underlying database?
(Choose three)
A. Aggregation
B. Distinct Row
C. Ordering
D. Union
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 When you read an XML schema into the Local Object Library, which three types of XM metadata are
imported? (Choose three)
A. Attributes
B. Data Types
C. Elements
D. Styles
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 Which SQL statement displays when the Trace SQL Readers
option is set to Yes ?
A. SQL from the source tables
B. SQL to the target tables
C. SQL from the Lookup_ext function
D. SQL from the Table_Comparison transform
Answer: A

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NO.20 In which three objects can you include a try/catch block.? (Choose three)
A. Data Flow
B. Job
C. Script
D. Work Flow
Answer: B,C,D

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2014年1月30日星期四

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Exam Code: 6005.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 Implementation Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A Customer has deployed a Communication Server000 Rls. 7.0 system at their site Their states
department is expanding and has asked that five new telephones be added with the same capabilities as
the existing telephones in the department Which programming command should be used to complete this
task?
A. Move to DN
B. Move form TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has deployed a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Ris.7.0 system at their site, and have
asked that a swap using the using the Element Manager Pones tool on the two telephone sets shown in
the print-out be performed What should the customer be told regarding this request?
A. These two telephones cannot be swapped because they do not have compatible TN types
B. These two telephones can be swapped because they are both assigned to TGAR 1
C. These two telephones can be swapped because they both have the same VCE Class of service
D. These two telephones can not be swapped because they are not in the same Call Pickup group
Answer: A

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NO.3 A technician is upgrading an exiting option 11C Rls. 5.5 system to a Communication Server (CS) 1000E
Rls. 7.0 standard Availability with a single Media Gateway 1000E chasses . A CPMG, Co-Resident Server
card is being deployed during the upgrade. This is a stand-alone system that is not part of a larger
network so the CPMG will act as its own Primary Security Server Which supplication deployment
combination will be deployed on the CPMG server for this customer?
A. CS+SS+EM
B. CS+SS+SIPL
C. CS+SS
D. CS+SS+NRS
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has installed a Media Gateway Controller (MGC) and would like to change the baud rite
settings for the SDI ports, The bind rates for all Serial Data Interface (SDI) ports on the MGC are
configurable through Call Server Which overlay is used to configure the MGC SDI ports?
A. LD 137
B. LD 117
C. LD 97
D. LD 17
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is preparing to install software on the CPMG Server and would like to display the boot
sequence on the system terminal for the BIOS ROM, and Operating System Which port on the CPMG
services this information?
A. Frontface TTY Port 2
B. Frontface TTY Port 1
C. Backplane 3-port connection TTY Port 0
D. Frontface Embedded LAN (ELAN) port0
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer purchased a new Communication Server 1000E SA system with five media gateways which
include MG 1: CPMG (Call Server, Signaling Server, Media Gateway Controller) MG2: Media Gateway
Controller MG3: Media Gateway Controller MG4: Media Gateway Controller MG5: Media Gateway
Controller Which statement is true regarding the configuration of Media Gateway 1.?
A. The Call Server and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address
B. The Call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address.
C. The Call Server and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
D. The call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer has asked if the Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls, 7.0 system can prowde Executive
users with the ability to selectively drop people that have been added to a conference Based on the
print-outs and assuming the CSD Key has been programmed and the Class of Service assigned is CDCA
which capabilities are current available to the user of extension 2006?
A. The user can not see the conference display count or selectively disconnect callers
B. The user can see the conferee display count and can selectively disconnect callers
C. The user can see the conferee display count but can not selectively disconnect callers
D. The user cannot see the conferee display count but can selectively disconnect callers
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician has previously scheduled Subscriber Manager to build a new telephone account for the
subscriber John Smith at midnight. However, the next morning it is discovered an account has not been
provisioned What should be done next?
A. Look at ss_common logs in Linux base
B. Within UCM, look at OAM logs under Tools->logs
C. Within UCM, look at Security Event logs under Tools-> logs
D. Look at cs_console logs in Linux base
Answer: B

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NO.9 A technician is planning to implement a single IP telephony node for a Co-Resident Communication
Server (CS) 1000E system at release 7.0 Which components can be configured within the node?
A. Virtual trunk gateways, virtual loops, Personal directory, IM and presence publisher
B. SMRN for MAS, SIP Line Gateway, Personal Directory
C. IP Media services, SIP Line Gateway, Personal directory, SIP Gateway
D. SIP Line Gateway, TPS, Personal directory, AML link, Voice gateway codecs
Answer: C

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NO.10 A CUSTOMER WITH A Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.5 with two IPMGs is upgrading their
system to release 7.0 The upgraded system will have two IP Media Gateways Which two statements are
true regarding DSP resources for the IP Media Gateways in the upgraded system? (Choose two)
A. DSP resources are no longer required for inter-IPMG calls
B. DSP resources are localized to a particular IPMG where the DSP resource is located
C. DSP resources are considered system resources and are not localized to a particular chassis
D. DSP resources are required for TDM to IP calls
Answer: B, D

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Exam Code: 3102.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main site and
Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. undefined
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a user name
and password.
Which statement best explains why a user name and password are required.?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption process and
subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are used to
login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and authentication
purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation. For
system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

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NO.4 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session Manager
but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password is valid
In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again in
Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

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NO.8 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been asked to
apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new Application
Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating Application Sequence
drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the Berlin
location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

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NO.9 After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data, using
which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

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