2013年7月31日星期三

Latest training guide for IBM 000-555

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Exam Code: 000-555

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Informix Dynamic Server 11.50 Fundamentals)

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NO.1 Which two statements are correct about Remote Standalone (RS) secondary instances? (Choose
two.)
A. RS secondary instances can be dynamically added and removed.
B. RS secondary instances support automatic index repair.
C. RS secondary instances can become a HDR secondary.
D. RS secondary instancesrequires a HDR secondary to be present in order to function.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which three statements will delete all rows from table_name? (Choose three.)
A. DELETE FROMtable_name ;
B. DELETEtable_name ;
C. DELETE * FROMtable_name ;
D. TRUNCATE TABLEtable_name ;
E. DELETE ALL FROMtable_name;
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col2 of the rows having col1=20.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Why would you want to create a table with a lock mode row as opposed to a lock mode page?
A. to have the highest level of contention within transactions operating on the table
B. to reduce the number of locks when accessing rows out of the table
C. to have increased concurrency
D. to keep more information in memory for each locked row
Answer: C

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NO.5 Enterprise Replication (ER) requires which data object to exist in all tables participating in replication?
A. a virtual column
B. a unique index
C. a unique constraint
D. a primary key
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about the COMMIT WORK statement? (Choose two.)
A. The keyword WORK is optional.
B. The COMMIT WORK statement releases all row locks but not table locks.
C. All of the successful modifications that the transaction makes are saved to disk when you issue a
COMMIT WORK statement.
D. A new transaction automatically starts after each COMMIT WORK or ROLLBACK WORK statement in
anonlogged database.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which two instance types are disaster recovery oriented rather than high availability oriented?
(Choose two.)
A. an Enterprise Replication instance
B. a RS Secondary instance
C. a SD Secondary instance
D. a Continuous Log Restore instance
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 What are three system level databases? (Choose three.)
A. sysmaster
B. sysadmin
C. sysmonitor
D. sysutils
E. sysperf
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 Which statement will change the column address1 to a null value?
A. UPDATE customer SET address1 = null WHERE customer_num = 134;
B. UPDATE customer SET address1 = '123 New Street', SET address2 = null WHERE customer_num =
134;
C. UPDATE customer SET address1 = "" WHERE customer_num = 134;
D. UPDATE customer SET address1 = null, SET address2 = null WHERE customer_num = 134;
Answer: A

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NO.10 In a SELECT statement, the clauses must appear in which order?
A. Projection, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, HAVING, INTO TEMP
B. Projection, FROM, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, INTO TEMP
C. Projection, FROM, WHERE, GROUP BY, HAVING, ORDER BY, INTO TEMP
D. Projection, FROM, INTO TEMP, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY
Answer: C

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NO.11 You can use a "role" to enforce which two kinds of security or access control in an instance and/or its
data? (Choose two.)
A. Access to data within a table at a row and column level.
B. Access to data based on the types of tasks to be performed.
C. Control which user(s) may or may not create databases.
D. Control which user(s) may or may not execute administrative functions.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which keyword is used to determine whether a comparison is true for every value returned from a sub
query?
A. NOT
B. ALL
C. SOME
D. EVERY
Answer: B

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col1 of the rows having col1=20 that were updated to have col1 = 25 by client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are two ways to create table t1 with row level locking? (Choose two.)
A. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) locking row".
B. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) lock mode row".
C. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) lock level row".
D. Set DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW in ONCONFIG before executing "create tablet1(c1 int)".
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Which two steps are necessary to enable encryption with the Communication Support Modules?
(Choose two.)
A. Add an entry to the concsm.cfg file.
B. Add an entry to the options column of thesqlhosts file or registry.
C. Set the CSMENConconfig variable.
D. Set the encryption flag in theencrypt_db table in the sysadm database.
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the select statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will select the rows that had col1=20 and were updated to have col1=25 by Client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without selecting any rows.
Answer: A

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NO.17 User A creates a user defined routine. Which privilege must be granted to other users before they can
use user A's UDR?
A. select on the tables used in the procedure
B. execute on the procedure
C. DBA on the database
D. resource on the database
Answer: B

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NO.18 When you execute an INSERT statement, the database server will insert a NULL value into any
column that meets which two conditions? (Choose two.)
A. You provide no value for a specific column.
B. Where a zero is specified in the VALUES clause of a serial column.
C. Where you specify the NULL keyword in the VALUES clause for a specific column.
D. Columns that are used in indexes.
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 In which three places may a function be used in a SELECT statement? (Choose three.)
A. in the select (or projection) list
B. in a group by clause
C. in a sub query
D. in a predicate
E. in a cube definition
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: 000-039

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1 Implementation)

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NO.1 Which statement(s) are true about the Policy Proxy Server? It reduces the number of inbound firewall
ports that must be opened to the real Policy Server. It serves as a standby Policy Server. It reduces the
number of outbound firewall ports that must be opened on the firewall. It caches the master authorization
database of the secure IBM Tivoli Access Manager domains.
A. only statement 1
B. only statement 2
C. statements 1 and 3
D. statements 1 and 4
Answer: D

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NO.2 What happens if the Policy Server goes down?
A. WebSEAL returns a 503: service unavailable.
B. WebSEAL denies access for all incoming requests.
C. WebSEAL is no longer able to authenticate and authorize users.
D. WebSEAL continues to work and the end user is unaware of the failure.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which access control list permission specifies access to an application hosted on WebSphere where
Java Access Contract for Containers (JACC) is enabled for IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business
V6.1.1?
A. x
B. i
C. T
D. r
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the default keystore type used by IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1?
A. jks
B. kdb
C. cms
D. pks12
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.An existing IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1 infrastructure
already protects a Web application for employees by using an intranet WebSEAL. The next step is to
make the Web application accessible for Internet customers. What would be the most secure and logical
flow?
A. Flow A
B. Flow B
C. Flow C
D. Flow D
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1 file is used to configure LDAP replicas?
A. pd.conf
B. ldap.conf
C. ibmslapd.conf
D. PDJLog.properties
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two functions of the Policy Server? (Choose two.)
A. It maintains the operating file system.
B. It gets the latest information about the patch level.
C. It gives the date and time for the current transaction.
D. It maintains the location information about other IBM Tivoli Access Manager servers.
E. It maintains the master authorization database and processes updates for the authorization database.
Answer: D, E

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NO.8 What is the correct order to install and configure a new IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business
V6.1.1 environment?
A. User Registry, WebSphere, Web Portal Manager, Policy Server
B. User Registry, Web Portal Manager, Policy Server, WebSphere
C. User Registry, Web Portal Manager, WebSphere, Policy Server
D. User Registry, Policy Server, WebSphere, Web Portal Manager
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer is planning an IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1 environment which
includes a WebSEAL instance. What are three considerations for this implementation? (Choose three.)
A. authentication type
B. authorization server location
C. stateful junctions requirements
D. junctions created as SMTP or TCP
E. administration type (pdadmin or WPM)
F. junction type (standard, virtualhost, transparent)
Answer: A, C, F

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NO.10 What meets the solution requirements of a large number of user sessions that need to be tracked using
a fault tolerant and scalable IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1 Session Management
Server (SMS) architecture where session information can be recovered after a failure?
A. An SMS server deployed on a cluster WebSphere V7.0 server that uses a 64-bit JVM and uses
in-memory storage location for session information.
B. An SMS server deployed on a cluster WebSphere V7.0 server that uses a 32-bit JVM and uses a
cluster IBM DB2 database storage location for session information.
C. An SMS server deployed on a cluster WebSphere V7.0 server that uses a 64-bit JVM and uses a
cluster IBM DB2 database storage location for session information.
D. An SMS server deployed on a cluster WebSphere V7.0 server that uses a 32-bit JVM and uses
WebSphere eXtreme Scale V7.0 storage location for session information.
Answer: D

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NO.11 In order to achieve communication between the default configured Policy Server and WebSEAL, which
firewall ports must be opened between these two components?
A. ports 80 and 389
B. ports 636 and 6881
C. ports 9080 and 9443
D. ports 7135 and 7234
Answer: B, C

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NO.12 What is included in the high level configuration document when WebSEAL clustering must provide high
availability to back-end Web servers as part of the configuration?
A. Policy Server Replication
B. WebSEAL Junction Replication
C. Back-end Web Server Replication
D. LDAP High Availability and Replication
Answer: B

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NO.13 When a user makes a request for a resource in a WebSEAL domain, WebSEAL sends the resource to
the user upon successful authentication and policy check. As an alternative to this standard response,
WebSEAL can be configured to automatically redirect the user to a specially designated home or
welcome page. How this is accomplished?
A. Edit the WebSEAL configuration file and uncomment the enable-login-redirect-page in the [acnt-mgt]
stanza and specify a page location, for example:[acnt-mgt]enable-login-redirect-page =
/jct/intro-page.html
B. Edit the WebSEAL configuration file and uncomment the enable-login-redirect-page in the
[enable-redirects] stanza and specify a page location, for
example:[enable-redirects]enable-login-redirect-page = /jct/intro-page.html
C. Edit the WebSEAL configuration file and enable the redirect for each authentication method by
uncommenting the entry for each method in the [enable-redirects] stanza, for
example:[enable-redirects]redirect = forms-authredirect = basic-authredirect = cert-authredirect =
token-authredirect = ext-auth-interfaceThen specify the login-redirect-page in the [acnt-mgt] stanza, for
example:[acnt-mgt]login-redirect-page = /jct/intro-page.html
D. Edit the WebSEAL configuration file and enable the redirect for each authentication method by
uncommenting the entry for each method in the [enable-redirects] and specify a page location, for
example:[enable-redirects]forms-auth-redir-page = /jct/intro-page-1.htmlbasic-auth-redir-page =
/jct/intro-page-2.htmlcert-auth-redir-page = /jct/intro-page-3.htmltoken-auth-redir-page =
/jct/intro-page-4.htmlext-auth-interface-redir-page = /jct/intro-page-5.html
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two components are required to create an initial management domain? (Choose two.)
A. Policy Server
B. Registry Server
C. Policy Proxy Server
D. Authorization Server
E. Session Management Server
Answer: A, B

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NO.15 Corporate policy states that the service desk resets passwords after five failed logon attempts. Which
report provides the user identity qualifying for a password reset?
A. Locked Account History
B. User Password Change History
C. Failed Authorization Event History
D. Failed Authentication Event History
Answer: D

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NO.16 On which three operating systems can IBM Tivoli Access Manager Policy Server be installed and
configured? (Choose three.)
A. AIX V5.1
B. AIX V5.2
C. Windows XP
D. z/OS V1.11
E. Linux on x86_64
F. Windows 2003 / 2008 Advance Enterprise
Answer: B, E, F

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NO.17 What are two supported options when determining which user registry to use in an IBM Tivoli Access
Manager for e-business V6.1.1 environment? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Tivoli Directory Server
B. Open Source LDAP Server
C. Novell Java Directory Server
D. Oracle User Directory Server
E. Microsoft Active Directory Application Mode (ADAM)
Answer: A, E

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NO.18 How can five IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1 (Tivoli Access Manager) administrators
be given a different password policy than the rest of the employees in a single Tivoli Access Manager
environment?
A. When creating an administrator, apply a custom password policy which is different from the global
password policy.
B. When creating an administrator, add them to a special Tivoli Access Manager group with a different
password policy.
C. Configure the password policy for the Tivoli Access Manager administrator in LDAP for the other
employees in Tivoli Access Manager.
D. Configure the password policy in the WebSEAL configuration file which enables the special Tivoli
Access Manager administrator setting.
Answer: A

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NO.19 A user's password was stolen. The incident report team needs to know exactly which applications were
used during the incident before the user changed the password. Which report is needed?
A. Audit Event History by User
B. Resource Access by Accessor
C. User Password Change History
D. Authorization Event History by Action
Answer: A

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NO.20 While creating a high level configuration document, the IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business
V6.1.1 (Tivoli Access Manager) architect has to express the location of the Tivoli Access Manager
components network zones. The WebSEAL will be accessible from the Internet for external customers.
Which three installation options will the architect include in the configuration document? (Choose three.)
A. WebSEAL installed in the DMZ
B. Policy Server installed in the DMZ
C. WebSEAL installed in the Intranet
D. User Registry installed in the DMZ
E. Policy Server installed in the Intranet
F. User Registry installed in the Intranet
Answer: A, E, F

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Exam Code: 000-602

Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z Technical Support V4)

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NO.1 A customer is willing to buy one z196 with four zBX. The manager of the mainframe department is
concerned about the acoustical noise from the zBX. What action should be done in order to address this
concern.?
A. Order Rear Door Heat eXchanger to minimize BladeCenter noise.
B. IBM Site and Facilities Services can provide sound attenuation panels for data center walls and
ceilings
C. Order IBM acoustic door
D. Order 3rd party vendor acoustic attenuation enclosures for BladeCenter
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer has several System z servers and is considering moving to zEnterprise. They ask if all their
installed systems can be upgraded directly to zEnterprise. Which of the following IBM z Servers will not
upgrade directly to zEnterprise?
A. z10 EC
B. z9 EC
C. z10 BC
D. z10 IFL only
Answer: D

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NO.3 A z800 customer has been acquired by a larger company. The parent company is a z196 customer. The
parent company CIO has told the z800 staff to upgrade from z/OS 1.4 to a supported z/OS version on a
z10 BC. The CIO understands there is no simple supported migration path. The z800 staff plans to
present the parent company CIO four migration options. Which of the following plans will bring them to a
supported environment?
A. Research PSP buckets to ensure all required service is applied to z/OS 1.4
B. Purchase IBM Lifecycle Extension for z/OS 1.7 and migrate to z/OS 1.7
C. Order the most current version of z/OS and migrate to that version
D. Install the z10 with z/VM and run z/OS 1.4 as a z/VM Guest
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer with a System z Server and DS8000 storage subsystems will be creating a new remote data
center for disaster recovery (DR). The data centers are 613 kilometers (381 miles) apart. The data
migration and production cutover must be accomplished with minimal disruption.
Which of the following technologies best meets these requirements?
A. Global Mirror
B. SVC
C. PPRC
D. Flash Copy
Answer: A

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NO.5 The System z specialist is talking to the IT Manager of a large enterprise who asks, what are the
benefits of Server Virtualization? Which of the following is a benefit of Server Virtualization on System z
A. Hipersocket networking reduces physical networking requirements between virtual servers
B. Equal access to all resources and data for all applications
C. Will always reduce cost of IT
D. NSF allows data be shared between UNIX, Windows and System z Servers
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is installing their first zBX to analyze the fit for a large implementation later. The Operations
Director is concerned about what device would service the blade, specifically for replacing microcode or
recognizing hardware failure. Which of the following devices performs these functions for the zBX?
A. Any HMC attached to the z196
B. Any HMC attached to the System z ensemble that owns the blade
C. The HMC currently running Unified Resource Manager
D. The HMC attached to the System z node that owns the blade
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer is planning for their first z196. At what stage should pre-sale TDA be performed?
A. Prior to point of ordering
B. Prior to proposal
C. Prior to initial solution design meeting
D. Prior to delivery
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer is considering consolidating 50 existing Linux x86 servers to Linux on System z.
Which of the following is the best way to create a detailed consolidated sizing for these 50
servers?
A. Collect performance and workload data for CPU busy on the current servers and translate RPE2s into
MIPS, then input the results into
eConfig for a sizing
B. Collect performance data and use it for a Fit for Purpose study to create a sizing
C. Collect performance and workload data from existing servers and share it with IT Architects and
Techline to create a sizing.
D. Use the IBM Workload Estimator (IWE) on the Internet to create the detailed consolidated sizing.
Answer: C

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NO.9 In a customer project status meeting, a new requirement surfaces. This requirement may result in
substantially more storage being needed than originally specified. Which of the following addresses this
change?
A. Provide a quotation for more disk
B. Recommend the client postpones the requirement
C. Propose IBM Storage Cloud Services
D. Process a project change-order
Answer: D

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NO.10 A client is considering a zBX for application serving. Which of the following issues need to be discussed
during implementation planning for the zBX with the client?
A. Level of Windows running on zBX
B. Toleration PTFs for z/OS running on the zBX
C. Maintenance level of zVM
D. Levels of Linux on System x, and AIX on zBX
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M90

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Content Analytics Theory Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 Which of the following views of the Text Miner is dedicated to analyze a three way correlation between a
pair of selected facets?
A. Deviations view.
B. Trends view.
C. Connections view.
D. Documents view.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the difference between a crawler plug-in versus an export plug-in for the crawled documents.?
A. Only the export plug-in can export the crawled document to a file system.
B. The crawler plug-in can view the metadata while the export plug-in cannot.
C. The crawler plug-in can modify the crawled document while the export plug-in cannot.
D. None, they referred to the same plug-in.
Answer: C

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NO.3 One of the challenges in working with unstructured information is that traditional business intelligence
solutions are limited to which of the following?
A. Intranet search and analysis.
B. Reporting and analysis of only structured data.
C. Reporting and analysis of only non-structured data.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT available with a Text Analytics collection?
A. Search multiple collections.
B. Custom text extraction rules.
C. Deep inspection of analysis results.
D. Custom user dictionaries.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following rules can be used to build categories?
A. Group documents by specifying a URL pattern.
B. Categorize documents that match complex query.
C. Identify documents based on specified keywords that occur in the document contents.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: LOT-918

Exam Name: IBM (Developing Portals & Web Apps IBM WebSphere Portlet Fact 7.0)

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NO.1 Jeffrey is reviewing the following section of a debugTracing.txt log.
What can he infer from this part of the log?
A. The main method took no time to execute.
B. The appMainPage took 46 seconds to load.
C. The varSampleApp variable changed during or after the appMainPage loaded.
D. The varSampleApp variable was set to Chicago prior to the loading of the appMainPage.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Anna has been testing a model and is concerned about the time certain actions seem to be taking. Her
development environment is a high-end system, and other portlets she has developed have not exhibited
the kind of response time lag that she and her testers perceive. She suspects one of the data services
builders is experiencing network latency, but is unsure where the real problem lies. What actions can she
take to help isolate the performance issue?
A. Add counters to the builder calls that are suspect.
B. Consult the performance log, which is created by default with each model run.
C. Enable system tracing in the run configuration tab to log the execution time for each action (page or
method).
D. Dedicate a larger Java HEAP_SIZE to the main method associated with the model that is suspect.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The primary use for the WebSphere Portlet Factory server configuration is?
A. To deliver your application to a production server.
B. To deploy, run, and test your application on a development server.
C. To create a WAR file for manual deployment to a production or development server.
D. To give your application access to APIs that are specific to the target server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Pat wants to know how many web service calls are being made in a given time frame, how long on
average each web service call is taking, and how many web service calls are failing. How can Pat obtain
such performance information?
A. That information is not yet available from the WebSphere Portlet Factory web service support, but the
application can be built to log this information itself, if desired.
B. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs all requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed applications
WEB-INF/logs/event.log file.
C. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs web service requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed
applications WEB-INF/logs/serverStats.txt log file.
D. Enable this logging using the Performance field in the Web Service Call builder, and the
information comes back with the web service call results to the consumer model.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Tim has a web application that accesses a database through a provider model containing SQL Call
builders. He thinks there might be a performance problem with one or more of the database calls. How
can he get WebSphere Portlet Factory to log detailed performance information about all aspects of the
database access.?
A. He needs to use a SQL Override builder; this builder provides several fields that enable
detailed logging of performance information for database access.
B. He must enable DEBUG-level database performance tracing in the Log4J properties file and redeploy
the WAR file.
C. He must enable the Log Server Stats field in each SQL Call builder.
D. No changes are required; WebSphere Portlet Factory automatically logs performance statistics for all
executed actions, such as database access calls.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-632

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer)

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NO.1 Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 10 security environment.?
A. Cognos 10 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time.
B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined.
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups
and roles defined in the authentication providers.
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and
roles (of which users are members), not individual users.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the implementation of object security in
Framework Manager?
A. Groups and roles can be created in the Cognos namespace when specifying access to objects.
B. Even when object security is applied, if anonymous access is configured, every object in a Framework
Manager project is visible to everyone.
C. A user belongs to two groups. One of the groups is denied access to an object. The other group is
granted access to the object. The result is that user has access to the object.
D. Granting access to an object for one user, group or role (except the Everyone and All
Authenticated Users groups), implicitly denies access to that object for all other users, groups or roles.
Answer: D

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NO.3 With respect to Cognos 10 security, which of the following is true of the Cognos namespace?
A. Only contains predefined groups and roles.
B. Can be used to create custom groups, roles and users.
C. Can be used to create Cognos 10 specific groups and roles.
D. Can be deleted if a different namespace is used to secure the environment.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of
the following Framework Manager objects?
A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
C. Relationships.
D. Parameter maps.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is true when applying object security in Framework Manager?
A. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other
objects remain accessible to all users.
B. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other
objects will not be accessible to all users.
C. Allow overrides Deny if specified in the properties of the object.
D. Child objects only inherit security from their parent if the Inherit property is set to Yes.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-181

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules BRMS v7.1, Application Development)

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NO.1 A developer is implementing a new Business Rule Management System. The requirements say that the
rules should be valid for specific periods of time and no additional rule properties are required.
At a minimum, the developer should use:
A. the default extension model.
B. the plug-in extension model.
C. a specific extension data file.
D. a new extension model and new extension data file.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The validation team is complaining because the WSDL generated by the Transparent Decision Service
is incomplete and does not allow for execution. When verifying the application, the developer realizes that
the schemas are not available. What should the developer do to resolve the problem?
A. Add the schemas in the BOM Editor.
B. Reference the schemas in the ruleapp project.
C. Package the schemas in the META-INF classes of the application.
D. Select the schemas in the dynamic execution object model property.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The development team of a company needs to deploy their business rules in a testing environment and
a production environment. Rules with status "Defined" should be deployed to the testing environment,
while rules with status "Verified" should be deployed to the production environment.
What should the developer do to satisfy this requirement?
A. Create one project with one ruleset extractor based on a dynamic query, which takes rule status as a
parameter in the Ruleset Export wizard.
B. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two queries.
C. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two validator classes.
D. Create two rule projects, one for rules with status "Defined" and the other for rules with status
"Verified".
Answer: B

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NO.4 A developer must set up a rule project. The developer has received three Java archive (.jar) files. The
first .jar file contains information related to the input parameter. The second .jar file contains information
related to the output parameter. The third .jar file contains utility methods that are not used by the rules or
by the other two .jar files. To create the BOM in the rule project, the developer should add:
A. two .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
B. two .jar files to the XOM and create two BOM entries.
C. all three .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
D. all three .jar files to the XOM and create three BOM entries.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company has a non-static BOM method void addLine(OrderLine line, String comment)in class Order.
Rule writers should be presented with the action phrase "add an item to an order with comment a string".
How should a developer verbalize this method.?
A. add <0, an item> to <this> with comment <1, a string>
B. add <line, "an item"> to <this> with comment <comment>
C. add {0, "an item"} to {this} with comment {1}
D. add {line, "an item"} to {this} with comment {comment}
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-184

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Message Broker V7.0, System Administration)

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NO.1 A message flow Flow1 is running on execution group EG1 on the broker BRK1. As per the business
requirement, the flow accesses the database for transformation and routing. The user ID and password
used by the flow need to be changed to adhere to the company's new policy for user IDs and passwords.
The administrator has been asked to change the user ID and password for the given message flow
without affecting other flows. The administrator is using the mqsisetdbparms command to set the user ID
and password. Which command should the administrator use next?
A. mqsistart BRK1
B. mqsireload BRK1 -e EG1
C. mqsistartmsgflow BRK1 -e EG1 -m Flow1
D. mqsistopmsgflow BRK1 -e EG1 -m Flow1
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator has been asked to do capacity planning for the implementation of WebSphere
Message Broker on an already existing system where other enterprise applications are running.
What is the recommended approach for sizing?
A. Analyze the current capacity sizing on the system.
B. Implement WebSphere Message Broker and add 1GB RAM in current production.
C. Implement WebSphere Message Broker on the production so the capacity planning can be done.
D. Vertically scale the system by adding CPU, RAM & disk space if needed for Message Broker
implementation.
E. Generate the capacity planning report via the capacity planning for a given topology feature in
WebSphere Message Broker.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 An administrator needs to administer a broker on a Windows platform through the Administration API
exerciser. How can the administrator start the exerciser?
A. Set the mqsiclasspath and then invoke ConfigManagerProxy.sh
B. Invoke the shell script install_dir/sample/ConfigManagerProxy/StartConfigManagerProxyExerciser
C. Run the shell script install_dir\sample\ConfigManagerProxy\StartConfigManagerProxyExerciser
from a WebSphere Message Broker Command Console.
D. Put a .bat script install_dir/sample/ConfigMangerProxy/StartConfigManagerProxyExerciser which
can include the broker environment and start the Configuration Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator has installed WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 on a production system which
has an existing implementation of WebSphere Message Broker V6.1. How should the administrator use
the WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 to administer WebSphere Message Broker 7.0 and
WebSphere Message Broker V6.1?
A. Use the WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 to adopt the V6.1 brokers.
B. Use the WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 to connect to the WebSphere Message Broker V6.1.
C. Install SupportPac I097 to achieve unified administration through the WebSphere Message Broker
Toolkit V7.0.
D. Administration of WebSphere Message Broker V6.1 is not supported through WebSphere Message
Broker Toolkit V7.0.
Answer: D

IBM   000-184   000-184

NO.5 A company has legacy and modern applications co-existing in their enterprise environment. The legacy
application requires business messages in COMMAREA formats while the modern application requires
XML format for processing. There is a need for their web application to interact with legacy and modern
application to process a transaction. What is the recommended way for implementing the desired
solution.?
A. Split the business use case to two different transactions each invoking one target component.
B. Invoke the modern application on XML format request then process the legacy application request.
C. Implement two different format request invocation from the application to the target
components.
D. Implement WebSphere Message Broker and route the request on specified formats to the target
components.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator has been asked to prepare the environment for migration of WebSphere Message
Broker Version 6.0 to WebSphere Message Broker Version 7.0. What steps does the administrator need
to perform to prepare the environment for migration? Upgrade the WebSphere Message Broker Version
6.0 to use:
A. WebSphere MQ Version 7.0.0 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to Fix
Pack 9 (Version 6.0.0.9) or later, upgrade
WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
B. WebSphere MQ Version 7.0.1 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to Fix
Pack 7 (Version 6.0.0.7) or later, upgrade
WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
C. WebSphere MQ Version 7.0.1 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to Fix
Pack 9 (Version 6.0.0.9) or later, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
D. WebSphere MQ Version 6.0.2.10 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to
Fix Pack 7 (Version 6.0.0.7) or later, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
Answer: C

IBM   000-184 test   000-184 original questions

NO.7 A broker administrator needs to verify the number of message flows that are running or will start to run
within each execution group in a running broker. Which detail level should be specified for mqsilist BRK1
-d?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

IBM questions   000-184   000-184 questions   000-184   000-184

NO.8 An administrator needs to modify the JVM Heap Size property that is associated with an execution
group. Which command should the administrator execute?
A. mqsichangebroker
B. mqsichangeproperties
C. mqsichangeexecutiongroup
D. mqsicreateexecutiongroup
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator needs to group several brokers into a Broker Set to make it easier to manage them
from a single WebSphere Message Broker Explorer workspace. The administrator creates an Automatic
Broker Set using the filter brokerEnvironment:Production. Which of the following steps does the
administrator need to perform in WebSphere Message Broker Explorer to ensure the correct brokers are
in this Broker Set?
A. Drag and drop the correct brokers onto the Broker Set.
B. Manually change the Properties of the correct brokers.
C. Manually change the Broker Tags of the correct brokers.
D. Define the properties of the filter to select brokers by the correct name.
Answer: C

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NO.10 An administrator has backed up a broker on AIX using the command mqsibackupbroker. After the
broker is restored on a new machine, which one of the following tasks must be completed?
A. Restore JAR files that were deployed in BAR files.
B. Restore the configurable services that were defined.
C. Restore the necessary MQ queues for message flows.
D. Restore the /var/mqsi/components/<broker> file system.
Answer: C

IBM   000-184   000-184 practice test   000-184   000-184   000-184

NO.11 A company has a central server, which stores the catalogue price of everything that the company sells.
This information is required by all Point of Sale (PoS) terminals in all the stores, and each PoS terminal
must be notified of any price change. The PoS terminals connect to the central server through TCP/IP and
wait for any price changes. The server sends any price changes to all connected client applications. The
company has future plans to include other types of PoS clients which uses
WebSphere MQ protocol to interact with the central server. How should the system be
implemented?
A. Implement protocol conversion on the application code.
B. Implement protocol transformation engines at request entry point.
C. Implement WebSphere Message Broker with TCP/IP and WebSphere MQ Adapters.
D. Implement WebSphere Message Broker to support other request protocols like WebSphere MQ.
Answer: D

IBM   000-184 practice test   000-184

NO.12 An administrator is asked to set up administration security for an existing broker, so that only
authorized users can perform administrative tasks against the broker and its resources. What command
does the administrator need to run?
A. mqsisetsecurity
B. mqsichangebroker
C. mqsicreateaclentry
D. mqsichangeproperties
Answer: B

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NO.13 An administrator needs to install service updates to the WebSphere Message Broker V 7.0
toolkit.What should the administrator use to do this?
A. IBM Support Center
B. IBM Software Support
C. IBM Support Assistant
D. IBM Installation Manager
Answer: D

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NO.14 An administrator has backed up the broker using the command mqsibackupbroker. The command was
issued while the broker was running and processing deployments. What is the outcome?
A. The command completes successfully as normal.
B. The backup file contains incomplete information and is unusable.
C. The command does not complete until deployments are complete.
D. An error message was issued indicating the broker was in use.
Answer: B

IBM   000-184 exam   000-184   000-184

NO.15 An administrator has installed WebSphere Message Broker V7.0 on a production system which has an
existing implementation of WebSphere Message Broker V6.1. The administrator already has an
Administration API (CMP API) script for monitoring the deployed resources on V6.1. What is the option
that the administrator can use to monitor the deployed resources for WebSphere Message Broker V7.0?
A. Install SupportPac I098.
B. Reuse the existing Administration API script.
C. Update the CLASSPATH to add new API JARs.
D. Update the existing Administration API script to remove deprecated API calls.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-058

Exam Name: IBM (Rational Performance Tester V8 )

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NO.1 What happens to all the page elements in a test?
A. They are grouped by page unless the application under test uses AJAX.
B. They are grouped by page as a visual aid to enhance readability.
C. They are assigned dynamically to separate virtual testers at playback time.
D. They use separate records from a single datapool.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are three key elements of a workload? (Choose three.)
A. user attributes (types and characteristics)
B. transaction mix and frequency
C. test script creation
D. data security
E. test environment and configuration
Answer: A,B,E

IBM   000-058   000-058 test   000-058

NO.3 What do good candidates for datapool substitution do?
A. simulate unique user credentials and data entry choices by individual users
B. simulate random timing and workflow variations by individual users
C. improve application performance by requesting pages that are already cached
D. make performance more predictable by using the same data values for every user
Answer: A

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NO.4 What should you do first, before you record a performance test?
A. reset the test environment (servers running, data refreshed)
B. start IBM Rational Performance Tester
C. push the red Record button
D. open your browser
Answer: A

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NO.5 Two workstations are installed with the full IBM Rational Performance Tester 8.2 product in addition to a
server that is installed with the IBM Rational Agent Controller. Stress testing is conducted with all the
machines. Response time breakdown data is collected. Later the tester discovers that the data was in fact
not collected. What are four probable causes? (Choose four.)
A. The server has not been instrumented.
B. IBM Rational Performance Tester is running on the other workstation.
C. The response time breakdown collection has not been enabled.
D. The firewall between the server and the two servers has not been opened.
E. IBM Rational Performance Tester 8.2 is not compatible with IBM Rational Agent Controller.
F. IBM Rational Agent Controller is not running on the workstation.
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.6 What are four options in customizing the appearance of a report graph in the Graphic Configuration
window.? (Choose four.)
A. graphic spans full width
B. display run time
C. draw thick lines
D. use 3D bars
E. font size
F. type face
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.7 When you first run your test, the results are very spiky.
How should you smooth your data?
A. paced loop
B. random selector
C. comment
D. delay
Answer: A

IBM dumps   000-058   000-058

NO.8 A company wants to see if their website can be operated under load for a longer duration of time. Which
type of test is suitable for this requirement?
A. stress test
B. volume test
C. contention test
D. endurance test
Answer: D

IBM   000-058 test   000-058 certification training   000-058

NO.9 After a test run, the tester sums up all the individual requests response times but discovers that the total
is not equal to the overall page response time. What are three causes of the difference? (Choose three.)
A. There is a defect in IBM Rational Performance Tester 8.2 that will be fixed in the next fix pack.
B. The page response time is more than the sum of the requests because it accounts for time taken to set
up the connections.
C. The page response time is less than the sum of the requests because several requests could have
been executed concurrently.
D. The page response time is more than the sum of the requests because custom code for response
correlation in a page is executed serially and is added to the page response time.
E. The page response time is less than the sum of the requests because the response for the request is in
the system cache.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Which statement is true about a custom code segment?
A. It can use any string highlighted in orange as an input variable.
B. It can use one or more references that precede it as input variables.
C. It can use one or more references that follow it as return values.
D. It always returns null unless there has been a correlation error.
Answer: B

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