pass4test is the most effective IT certification exam preparation website: 十月 2014

2014年10月27日星期一

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
From the messages shown, which action should be considered?
A. stop and start the Data Collector
B. reduce the batch size of the Archive Agent
C. stop and start the Kernel and Publish Servers
D. increase Maximum Method Records in the WSAM User Interface Managing Server System Properties
Answer: D

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NO.2 When enabling PDF support on WebLogic for the Visualization Engine, which script needs to be
modified to include the correct classpaths?
A. klctl.sh
B. setenv.sh
C. am-start.sh
D. startServer.sh
Answer: D

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NO.3 To perform database maintenance, which script should be scheduled to run daily?
A. amctl.sh
B. wdctl.sh
C. run-stats-cmd.sh
D. the data trimmer script
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Managing Server log(s) might help you discover problems with accessing the database?
A. am_ms.log
B. am_sam.log
C. am_ps1.log and am_ps2.log
D. am_aa1.log and am_aa2.log
Answer: D

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NO.5 With WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2, the database port must be provided. How can you
determine the port that is being used by the DB2 instance?
A. You use the b2 listdb2port command.
B. It is provided when the database is installed.
C. The port is discovered dynamically during the install.
D. You use the b2 getdbm cfg command or viewing /etc/services.
Answer: D

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NO.6 For WebSphere Studio Application Monitor (WSAM) V3.2 Management Server with DB2 database to
start and function properly, what must you do to set up the DB2 environment before issuing the command
'sh am-start.sh'?
A. locate source the filesetup_env, which is located in the /etc/Tivoli directory
B. locate and source the file's db2profile, which is located in the WAS_HOME directory
C. locate and source the file db2profile, which is located in the WSAM_HOME directory
D. locate and source the file db2profile, which is located in the sqllib subdirectory of the DB2 home
directory
Answer: D

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NO.7 In order to monitor composite transactions in z/OS environment using WebSphere Studio Application
Monitor, what must be done as part of Data Collector install? What needs to be running in order to be able
to collect correlation data for CICS and IMS Subsystems?
A. CYN1PROC
B. CYN1 Subsystem
C. CYN1PROC and RACF
D. CYN1PROC and CYN1 Subsystem
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which change is made by the WebSphere Studio Application Monitoring V3.2 distributed Data
Collector installer (both GUI and silent)?
A. adding SMF support
B. adding a custom service called "AM Custom Service"
C. creating the user "amuser" in the base operating system
D. sourcing the database user's profile in the profile for the user "amuser"
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2010-565
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NO.1 Which two statements are true about installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNMJ on
a Solaris platform? {Choose two.)
A. The ITNM destination directory must be owned as root.
B. If ITNM is installed as a non-root user, all future Tivoli products must be installed as the same user.
C. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as root if ITNM is installed and will run as non-root.
D. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as non-root if ITNM is installed and will run as
non-root.
E. Multiple ITNM installations on the same server can be installed with both the root account and a
non-root account.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 What is the primary issue with installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) as a root
user on a single UNIX system in combination with other Tivoli products?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. ITNM might not be compatible with other Tivoli products.
C. There are no issues related to installing as root on a UNIX system.
D. There are extra post-installation configuration steps to complete in order to run the core components
as the root user.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line
installation on a Windows system?
A. console_install.exe
B. launchpad_console.exe
C. launchpad.exe -console
D. install.exe -i console
Answer: D

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NO.4 The scope of the discovery contains the IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) server
and the gateway trace file shows that this is being used successfully as the correct NcpServerEntity.
However, the isolated suppression method is not working. What would cause this?
A. The ITNM server is not being directly polled for status.
B. The ITNM server is not connected to the rest of the topology.
C. There was no SNMP access to the ITNM server so the IP address is not known.
D. The Root Cause Analysis plug-in has not been explicitly configured to use the ITNM server.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 what leads to Fatal messages in the message level log
of a ncp process?
A. process is hung
B. process is terminated
C. process has not started
D. process is running with errors
Answer: B

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NO.6 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not
place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery?
(Choose two.)
A. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is checked
B. ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration > Partial
Rediscovery Agents tab
C. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is unchecked
D. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is checked
E. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is unchecked
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What does this entry do in the DiscoCollectorFinderSeeds.DOMAIN.cfg in IBM Tivoli Network Manager
IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM).?
insert into collectorFinder.collectorRules ( m_Host, m_Port, m_NumRetries ) values ( "172.16.25.1", 8082,
5 ) ;
A. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the EMS running on port 8082 to collect its
data.
B. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on port 8082 to
collect its data.
C. The collector agent running on 172 16 25 1 connects locally to the collector running on port 8082 to
collect its data.
D. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on 172.16.25 1 port
8082 to collect its data.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller
generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?
A. add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B. modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C. modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D. change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from reaching the
ObjectServer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2070-053
Exam Name: IBM FileNet P8 Product Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 In which of the following situations should you use sub maps in a work flow?
A. They can be used to implement simple work flows that have 4 or fewer steps
B. They can be used to breakdown complex work flows into more manageable pieces
C. They can be used to encapsulate all tasks in a work flow allowing the main map to hide details
D. B and C
Answer: D

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NO.2 The CE has discoverable, self-describing meta data. Which of the following things can NOT be
discovered through CE meta data?
A. The hierarchy of document classes and the point in the hierarchy at which custom properties are
added to classes.
B. The path to individual content elements stored in a file system.
C. The names of database tables and columns where custom property values are stored.
D. Information about referential integrity checks that will be performed by the CE server when
creating, updating, or deleting objects.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator is preparing to update all IBM FileNet P8 components with a new Content
Engine client fix pack.
The installation and upgrade worksheet will be used to gather values for the client update.
What must be done to filter the worksheet for Content Engine client installer values only?
A. Verify that row filtering is enabled.
B. Verify that column filtering is enabled.
C. Verify that row and column filtering is enabled.
D. Verify that the Data > Filter > AutoFilter command is enabled.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When installing and deploying Workplace XT across four nodes, at a single site in a highly
available configuration (i.e. J2EE application cluster), which of the following two statements follows
IBM's best practices?
A. Install Workplace XT on a single node only.
B. Store all configuration information in the EAR file.
C. Install Workplace XT on all four nodes independently.
D. Use a shared file system for configuration files used by all four nodes.
E. Install Workplace XT on a network file system that is shared by all four nodes.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which is NOT a characteristic of a workflow definition?
A. It is a graphical map showing the sequences of steps needed to complete the business process
B. Contains roles to specify which users can access specific types of work flows
C. It is a specification of each step, including who will process the work for the step, which step
processor application the participant will use, which attachments are required, what data is
necessary, what responses the participant can choose, and other options.
D. Contains routing logic that specifies how work advances from one step to the next
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer is upgrading from IBM FileNet P8 V4.5.1 to P8 V5.1. Currently they use IBM Legacy
Content Search Engine (LCSE) for content indexing on a standalone LCSE server. The customer is
migrating to IBM Content Search Services (CSS) as part of the upgrade. Which of the following is true
?
A. They must upgrade to LCSE V5.0 before they can migrate to CSS.
B. They must install CSS on it's own server because of the performance degradation of re-indexing
jobs.
C. Indexes from the current LCSE are not available once they start the indexing process on the new
CSS server.
D. They must determine whether they will be using Workplace XT or Workplace (default application
engine) to successfully configure CSSfunctionality.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT a standard, out-of-the-box feature of P8 security?
A. There is a mechanism for default permissions by document class.
B. There is a mechanism for automatically adjusting permissions during checkout/checkin cycles.
C. Security can be modified individually on business objects.
D. There is a mechanism for automatically adjusting permissions based on date and time.
Answer: D

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NO.8 While implementing a FileNet P8 solution, you would like to make content addition to the
FileNet ECM repository easy, intuitive and productive to end users. The proposed solution should
address requirements such as allow documents of a specific type to be added to a given folder, hide
certain properties from the user when entering metadata for the document, and apply pre-
configured security to documents. Which of the following techniques best addresses these
requirements?
A. Use the default Add Document functionality provided in the IBM Content Navigator
B. Use a Search Template
C. Use a Document Entry Template
D. Use a Form Policy Document
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Solution Designer
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NO.1 which external system can be interfaced to IBM Maximo Asset Managment V7.1 to
improt meter
readings?
A. Hubometer
B. Fixed Assets
C. General Ledger
D. Control System
Answer: D

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NO.2 At which date level do contracts,Labor,and chart of Accounts reside?
A. set
B. site
C. system
D. organization
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement defines a maximo asset in IBM Maximo Asset Management
V7.1(MAM)
A. A Maximo Asset is a record in MAM used to identify equipment.
B. A Maximo Asset is a record in MAM used to identify company assets.
C. A Maximo Asset is any entity described in MAM to capture events and costs
D. A Maximo Asset is any physical entity described in MAM to capture events and costs
Answer: B

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NO.4 Onet or more solutions for each functional gap now have been identified where the
solution requires
one to vary from using standard IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1.Which two factors are
used to
calculate the impact of each soulution for the project success?(Choose two)
A. length
B. urgency
C. Priority
D. Risk to business
E. difficulty to implement
Answer: DE

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NO.5 which three data elements are commonly interfaced to IBM maximo asset managment
V7.1 from an
exaternal purchasing system? (choose three)
A. calendars
B. vendor names
C. organzationgs
D. order quantities
E. person information
F. receipt quantities
Answer: BDF

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NO.6 The client requirements outline the need for advanced tracking of process
measurements such as
temperature,pressure,and flow. These measurement and test equipment requirments are
determined to
exceed standard IBM Maximo Asset Management capabilities.Which industry solution or
add-on will
provide this and other features?
A. Maximo Calibration
B. Maximo for service Providers
C. Maximo linear assest
D. Maximo lnstruments and controls
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two methods are available to migrate data from a legacy system to IBM
maximo Asset
management V7.1(MaM)(choose two)?
A. use a data mapping tool to link the legacy database to the MAM data warehouse and
update the MAM
data.
B. Extract data from the legacy system and create SQL.statements to insert the data directly
into the MAM
database.
C. connect the legacy database to the MAM database and synchronize the required data by
using an
external data mapping tool.
D. Extract data from the legacy system to comma-separated value files and use the data
import option of
the lntegration framework
E. restore the legacy database on the MAM database server,connect MAM to the legacy
database.and
reorganize the tables.view.and fields.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 if a customer has a requirements list,when is the best time to review this list with the
customer and
classify the requirements?
A. at the end of the design phase
B. as the first task of Design phase
C. during the process design workshops
D. at the beginning of the configuration phase
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which statement is true about Toshiba Global Commerce Solutions?
A. It provides only small retailers with hardware to reduce costs.
B. It provides retailers of all sizes with point-of-sale (POS) store solutions.
C. It provides only large retailers with technical resources to increase sales.
D. It provides only medium and large retailers with point-of-sale (POS) store solutions.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a feature of all SureMark Printers?
A. Paper journaling
B. Color thermal printing
C. Check flipping
D. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR)
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which POS application is designed for specialty and general merchandise retail environments?
A. Store Management Application (SMA)
B. General Sales Application (GSA)
C. Supermarket Application (SA)
D. SurePOS Application Client/Server Environment (ACE)
Answer: B

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NO.4 The 4685-S01 Charge-Coupled Device (CCD) hand held bar code scanner is designed for use in
which area of the world?
A. Asia
B. North America
C. Europe and Africa
D. Latin and South America
Answer: C

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NO.5 The ACE Independent Grocer Package includes which SurePOS terminal?
A. SurePOS 100
B. SurePOS 300
C. SurePOS 500
D. SurePOS 700
Answer: D

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NO.6 The Supermarket Application (SA) is engineered for which markets?
A. Small and medium business markets
B. General merchandise retailers
C. Specialty and department store retailers
D. International and multinational supermarket and hypermarket retailers
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which retail segment has the smallest profit margin and is the most competitive?
A. Specialty Retail
B. Grocery
C. General Merchandise
D. Food Service and Hospitality
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which provides a graphical user interface for TGCS POS applications?
A. POSGUI for 4690
B. SI GUI
C. ASTRA for 4690
D. GUI Creator for 4690
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which one of the following is true about the difference between the Action List builder and
the Method builder?
A. The Action List builder is recommended over the Method builder. In addition to using the chooser
to make a variable assignment or execute a service call, the Action List builder supports using the
picker to add programming constructs to the Action List, including conditionals and looping.
B. The Action List builder allows if/else conditionals, but does not support adding looping constructs
such as "for" loops and "while" loops. The Method builder allows the user to add looping logic.
C. The Method builder conveniently allows the user to drag and drop programming language
constructs from the palette, which are converted into Java code. The palette cannot be used with
the Action List builder.
D. The Method builder can return a value, but the Action List builder cannot.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Bob is wiring two portlets and intends to implement partial page refresh. Each of the following
is a correct approach except which one?
A. Do nothing because Smart Refresh is the default.
B. Use JavaScript.
C. Use the property broker and check the AJAX call option on the property broker for the IBM
WebSphere Portal.
D. Use the Event Declaration builder with client-side delivery and the Client Event Handler builder.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Heinrich has 35 builder calls in a model. If he wants to see the XML relevant to one specific
builder call in the model, how should he find it?
A. Right-click the builder call and select View XML.
B. Open the Model XML model view, then search for the builder call by its ID name.
C. Open the Builder Call Editor model view, and click Generate XML at the bottom.
D. Open the Model XML model view, then click the builder call in the builder call list.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Quincy has created an Imported Page from an existing HTML form. Now he would like to add
navigation on some of its HTML elements. How does he approach this task?
A. Add HTML builders for each HTML element.
B. Add Variable builders for each HTML element.
C. Add action control builders, such as Button or Link builders for each HTML element.
D. Add an Imported Page Collection builder to use all HTML elements at once, specifying their
indirect references in the element input table.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Ming has created a form using a Input Form builder that has 16 fields to complete, but all are
very small. He wants to organize the fields in two columns on the page. How can he easily
accomplish this task?
A. Use a News Columns builder and enter 2 in the number of columns.
B. Edit the HTML template to form two columns with the DataEntryField element.
C. Modify the default Input Form base page to organize the fields into two columns..
D. Drop a Layout Column from the palette onto the group element in the Design view. Drag to
arrange the fields as desired.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Page automation is a set of builders that facilitate the automatic display of data based on
metadata. What are the basic steps of page automation?
A. Receive data in a Data Page builder, examine the data, enrich the data.
B. Receive data in a Data page builder, modify the schema, apply modifiers.
C. Set up a data provider model, create a consumer model, select the highest level page automation
builder that fits the requirement, customize the generated UI to the requirements.
D. Examine received data in the context of a View and Form builder, build a presentation for the
data, document the schema.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Jonathan would like to document all his service provider models at once. How can he
approach this task?
A. Add a Comment builder before each SQL call.
B. Use the Service Definition builders in each one, generating comments for each.
C. Use the WebApp Documentation builder, specifying Services as the report parameter.
D. Use the Service Documentation Builder, specifying all service models and the report type.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Christine needs to make an AJAX call to a method named "getAddress" in her model. How
would she get the URL to the method in a Client JavaScript builder?
A. <%=webAppAccess.getBackchannelURL("getAddress", false)%>
B. <%=webAppAccess.getBackchannelActionURL("getAddress", false)%>
C. <%=webAppAccess.getActionURL("getAddress", false)%>
D. <%=webAppAccess.getAjaxURL("getAddress", false)%>
Answer: B

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2014年10月26日星期日

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NO.1 _______________ is a Life Insurance Trust with certain provisions that allows gifts to the trust
to qualify for the annual gift tax exclusion.
A. Crummey Trust
B. Constructive Trust
C. Charitable Lead Trust
D. Grantor Trust
Answer: A

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NO.2 Estate Planning Process is eight-step procedure that a manager has to follow. The Eight Steps
are as given below (not in any order)
The correct order is
A. (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(v)-(vi)-(vii)-(viii)
B. (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv)-(vi)-(vii)-(viii)-(v)
C. (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv)-(vi)-(vii)-(v)-(viii)
D. (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv)-(vi)-(v)-(vii)-(viii)
Answer: B

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NO.3 In context to Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 what is "Sapinda Relationship"?
A. It is with reference to any person extends as far as the third generation (inclusive) in the line of
ascent through the mother and, the fifth (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father.
B. It is with reference to any person extends as far as the third generation (inclusive) in the line of
ascent through the father and, the fifth (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother.
C. It is with reference to any person extends as far as the second generation (inclusive) in the line of
ascent through the mother and, the third (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father.
D. It is with reference to any person extends as far as the second generation (inclusive) in the line of
ascent through the father and, the third (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about the age of majority is/are correct?
A. Only (i)
B. Neither (i) or (ii)
C. Both (i) and (ii)
D. Only (ii)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Deduction u/s 80-IC regarding special provisions for enterprices in special catogries states is
allowed to the extent of:
A. 100% of profits and gains for ten assessment years
B. 100% of profits and gains for ten assessment years in case of any undertaking or enterprise in the
States of Sikkim or North Eastern Region and 50% in case of undertaking in Uttaranchal and Himachal
Pradesh
C. 100% of profits and gains for ten assessment years in case of any undertaking or enterprise in the
States of Sikkim or North Eastern States and 100% of profits and gains for the first 5 assessment years
and 25% (30% in case of companies) for next 5 assessment years.
D. None of the these
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
A. Both (i) and (ii)
B. Only (i)
C. Only (ii)
D. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer: A

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NO.7 The threshold amount for tax on Net Investment Income is __________in the case of a joint
return or surviving spouse, _________in the case of a married individual filing a separate return.
A. $250,000; $125,000
B. $125,000; $250,000
C. $350,000; $175,000
D. $175,000; $350,000
Answer: A

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NO.8 There are ______types of Charitable Trust. Out of these, in ________________ the value of
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A. Two, Charitable Remainder Unit Trust
B. Two, Charitable Remainder Annuity Trust
C. Three, Charitable Remainder Unit Trust
D. Three, Charitable Remainder Annuity Trust
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following values are part of an Agile approach to development?
A. We value working software over comprehensive documentation.
B. We value sticking to contracts over collaboration.
C. We value comprehensive documentation over working software.
D. We value working individually and following a plan.
Answer: A

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C. Prototyping.
D. Facilitated Workshops.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following job titles is used for someone who develops application software?
A. Applications Engineer.
B. Software Architect.
C. Programmer.
D. Systems Designer.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the general term used to ensure that items of documentation are managed
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A. Competency management.
B. Change management.
C. Configuration management.
D. Cost Management.
Answer: C

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A. Firewall.
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C. Spy-ware.
D. Operating system.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following would NOT usually be classified as an objective of good design?
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C. Maintainability.
D. Feasibility.
Answer: D

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C. The main aim of the review is to find faults in the document.
D. The documents to be reviewed are distributed in advance.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the main responsibility of the Business Analyst?
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B. To ensure that the IT solution aligns with the business needs.
C. To ensure that the end users get the IT system they requested.
D. To ensure that the system testing activity is carried out thoroughly.
Answer: B

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NO.1 You have an updated RPM called screensaver-1.1.i386. rpm. You have version 1.0 installed.
Using RPM, how do you view the changelog of this file to see if you should install the update?
A. rpm -qp --changelog screensaver-1.1.i386. rpm
B. rpm --changelog screensaver-1.1.i386. rpm
C. rpm -qc screensaver-1.1.i386. rpm
D. rpm -showchangelog screensaver-1.1.i386. rpm
Answer: A

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NO.2 You need to know where all the configuration files for the installed package named "postfix"
are located. Assuming it was installed with rpm, which command will list this information for you?
A. rpm -qc postfix
B. rpm -Vc postfix
C. rpm --config postfix
D. rpm -listconfig postfix
E. rpm -qa --config postfix
Answer: A

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NO.3 How can you update a package only if an earlier version is currently installed on the system?
A. rmp -- update rpmname
B. rpm -U rpmname
C. rpm -F rpmname
D. rpm -- force rpmname
E. rpm -u rpmname
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Upgrades, but only if the package is currently installed.

NO.4 You are installing Linux on a workstation for a new employee. Which partition should be
largest?
A. /
B. /boot
C. /lib
D. /usr
Answer: D

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6. You are about to install a new program on an RPM based Linux system. Which of the following
would be the best way to accomplish this?
A. Get the source code in a tarball and install from that source.
B. Get a source RPM and use rpm to install it.
C. Use rpm to install the program's binaries from an RPM package.
D. Use cpi to extract the binaries from a source RPM and use rpm to install those sources.
Answer: C

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7. What tool can you use to print shared library dependencies?
A. ldconfig
B. ldd
C. libdep
D. libpath
E. ldev
Answer: B

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Explanation:
ldd command prints the shared libraries required by each program or shared library specified on the
command line. Example: ldd libdb.so.3 libc.so.6 => /lib/tls/libc.so.6 (0x00237000) /lib/ld-linux.so.2
(0x0021e000)
8. What program is needed to establish a PPP link to another computer?
A. pppd
B. wvdial
C. papd
D. kppp
Answer: A

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Explanation:
wvdial - PPP dialer with built-in intelligence. wvdial is an intelligent PPP dialer, which means that it
dials a modem and starts PPP in order to connect to the Internet. It is something like the chat(8)
program, except that it uses heuristics to guess how to dial and log into your server rather than
forcing you to write a login script.
9. You need to install a fax server. Which type of fax/modem should you install to insure Linux
compatibility?
A. External Serial Fax/modem
B. External USB Fax/modem
C. Internal ISA Fax/modem
D. Internal PCI Fax/modem
Answer: A

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10. You are running Linux 2.0.36 and you need to add a USB mouse to your system. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. You need to rebuild the kernel.
B. You need to upgrade the kernel.
C. You need to load the USB modules for your existing modular kernel.
D. USB support is no available in Linux.
Answer: B

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11. If Linux detects an ACPI BIOS on bootup, what does it automatically deactivate?
A. PnP
B. PCI
C. ATA
D. APM
Answer: D

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12. Where can lilo place boot code?
A. The boot ROM
B. The boot RAM
C. The /boot partition
D. The MBR on a hard drive
Answer: D

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13. The lspci command can display information about devices except the following:
A. Card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz)
B. Card IRQ settings
C. Card vendor identification
D. Card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x)
E. Card Ethernet MAC address
Answer: E

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Explanation:
lspci is a utility for displaying information about all PCI buses in the system and all devices
connected to them. To display the MAC address of Ethernet, we use the ifconfig command.
14. What command would help you identify the I/O address range being used by the network
card?
A. cat/proc/modules
B. cat/proc/devices
C. cat/proc/meminfo
D. cat/io/dma
E. cat/proc/ioports
Answer: E

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15. You have just upgraded your PC to a 60 gigabyte IDE drive. While partitioning the drive, you
notice that only 32 gigabytes are available. Which of the following will most likely allow you to use
the entire drive?
A. Create two smaller partitions of 30 gigabytes each.
B. Set the PC BIOS to use LBA mode.
C. Create a partition that resides entirely below the first 1024 cylinders.
D. Use GRUB or the latest version of LILO as a bootloader.
E. Upgrade the PC BIOS to the latest version available.
Answer: E

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16. While installing from source code you don't see the configuration script. What command can
you run to compile the code?
A. make configure
B. install
C. install makefile
D. make
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The purpose of the make utility is to determine automatically which pieces of a large program need
to be recompiled, and issue the commands to recompile them. example C programs, since they are
most common, but you can use make with any programming language whose compiler can be run
with a shell command. In fact, make is not limited to programs. You can use it to describe any task
where some files must be updated automatically from others whenever the others change. To
prepare to use make, you must write a file called the makefile that describes the relationships
among files in your program, and the states the commands for updating each file. In a
program,typically the executable file is updated from object files, which are in turn made by
compiling source files. So, make command compile the source code.

NO.5 You are preparing a new set of shared libraries in /usr/local/applib and you have written and
compiled some code that uses these libraries. You have already performed and ldconfig, however
the system still cannot find the shared libraries. What is most likely the cause of this?A. You used
the wrong compiler.
B. You did not update your PATH variable.
C. You compiled the code with wrong library.
D. You forgot to put the library path in ld.so.conf
Answer: D

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