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Exam Code: M2170-657
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NO.1 IBM i2 iBase contains a technology called Search 360. What is its purpose?
A. Search 360 helps overcome the difficulties of remembering searches that were previously
conducted by making a user friendly history available. This helps increase time for analysis and
reduces chance of oversights.
B. Search 360 helps overcome the difficulties of finding connections concealed geographical data
records.
C. Search 360 helps overcome the difficulties of finding connections concealed telephone data
records. This helps increase time for analysis and reduces chance of oversights.
D. Search 360 helps overcome the difficulties of finding connections concealed by variations of
structured and unstructured information across multiple records. This helps increase time for
analysis and reduces chance of oversights.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How can the use of multiple tools from the IBM i2 suite, including Analysts Notebook reduce
costs
within the IT department?
A. With live data access provided by the internet, you can use Analyst’s Notebook to quickly
retrieve vital information from your databases without relying on a database specialist or learning a
complex query language, ensuring that your analysis is based on the most up-to-date information
available.
B. With live data access provided by Analysts Notebook, you can use the web to quickly retrieve
vital information from your databases without relying on a database specialist or learning a
complex query language, ensuring that your analysis is based on the most up-to-date information
available.
C. With live data access provided by iBase, iBridge, or iXa, you can use Analysts Notebook to
quickly retrieve vital information from your databases without relying on a database specialist or
learning a complex query language, ensuring that your analysis is based on the most
up-to-dateinformation
available.
D. The multiple tools provided by the IBM i2 suite enable IT Departments to contract out the
services needed to support the products and hence save the overheads associated with in-house
staff.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How does IBM i2 iBase increase analytical capability for an organization?
A. By combining data from the entire organization into a single repository, users can visualize the
entire organizational structure in one go for more in-depth analysis.
B. By combining data from the entire organization into a single repository, much simplified charts
can be produced for more straightforward analysis.
C. By combining data from the entire organization into a single repository, users can gain a
complete picture from all the available data for more in-depth analysis.
D. By searching across the entire organizations different databases, users can gain a less
confusing picture of the data, thus simplifying analysis.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Among the IBM i2 suite of tools are technologies that can connect to other data sources. Both
IBM
i2 iBridge and IBM iXA Search AN 2 connect to other databases - what are the key additional
features that i2 iXa Search An 2 provides over IBM i2 iBridge?
A. Smart Searching, Find Semantics, Secure connection to data sources over internet, Search
across multiple data sources, Individual data source show details, in- chart expand, Export results
to MS Excel, and Connectivity to other data sources.
B. Smart Find, Visual connection to internet data, Single search across social media sites,
Multimedia source show details, multimedia source expand and post-chart analysis.
C. Smart Searching, Find Similar, Secure connection to data sources over internet, single search
across multiple data sources, multi data source show details, multi data source expand, pre-chart
analysis, export results to MS Excel, and connectivity to other data sources (including non
relational sources, Web services).
D. There is no difference between IBM i2 iBridge and IBM i2 iXa Search AN 2, except that iBridge
is a cloud based technology and iXa is a server tool.
Answer: C

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NO.5 How can the IBM i2 suite enable financial organizations to access data from disparate data
sources, not necessarily owned by the institution?
A. The IBM i2 Information Exchange for Analysis Search for Analyst’s Notebook (iXa) provides a
single federated search from one application across multiple data sources that returns
consolidated results that are scored by their relevance.
B. The IBM i2 Information Exchange for Analysis Search for Analyst’s Notebook (iXa) is unable to
perform this function because activity like this is prohibited in most jurisdictions by privacy laws.
C. The i2 Information Exchange for Analysis Search for Analyst’s Notebook (iXa) enables financial
organizations to share information via the internet.
D. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to have a cloud
based repository, accessed and updated by all departments via the internet.
Answer: A

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NO.6 How many integration points are currently defined for the Intelligent Operations Center?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 11
D. 20
Answer: C

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NO.7 How can the IBM i2 suite help IT Directors be assured that the IBM i2 software will be scalable
and support more users in the future?
A. IT Directors can be assured the IBM i2 Intelligence and Fraud Analysis Platform is designed to
be run in an enterprise environment and the web based applications are based on a multi-tier
architecture that is designed with scalability in mind.
B. IT Directors can be assured the IBM i2 Analysis Platform is designed to be completely scalable
and are already operating in a multiplicity of complex environments.
C. The IBM i2 Intelligence and Fraud Analysis Platform are based on a multi-tier architecture that
is designed with scalability in mind and, in the correct hardware environment, can meet the needs
of many thousands of users.
D. IT Directors can be assured the IBM i2 Analysis Platform is designed to be run in an enterprise
environment and are natively capable of handling large numbers of additional data sources and
geographies.
Answer: A

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NO.8 How can the IBM i2 suite enable insurance organizations to identify potential risk associated
with
new customers?
A. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables insurance organizations to use
standardized visualization techniques and risk scoring across all available data sources to easily
assess the fraud risk of new policy applicants.
B. Because the IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables insurance organizations to
use tantric visualization techniques to easily assess the fraud risk of new policy applicants.
C. Because the IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables insurance organizations to
use synoptic risk scoring techniques to assess the fraud risk of new policy applicants.
D. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables insurance organizations to access
data sources thus ensuring no information is missed.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: P2020-012
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Data Collection Technical Support Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Before a Data Collection desktop product can store an asset to a repository, the .dql file
must be:
A. edited on the client machine and included in the project files during the asset storing
process
B. edited via C&DS Deployment Manager for every asset being stored
C. downloaded from the C&DS Deployment Manager repository to the client machine and
placed in the
installation directory of the Data Collection desktop product
D. placed in a C&DS repository folder via Deployment Manager and referenced on the client
via the DQL
Path property in a defined Question Repository connection
Answer: D

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NO.2 In order for a customer to show whether differences in the distribution of counts in a
particular table are
significant or whether they are merely due to chance, which one of the following should be
done?
A. Calculate the standard error in the table to make sure it is less than 1
B. Run a statistical test such as column proportions test or column means test
C. Insert the standard deviation in the table and make sure it is greater than 1
D. Determine that the weighted base is less than the actual un-weighted base
Answer: B

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NO.3 If a customer wants to allow specific users to be able to perform particular functions
and access
particular features within Interviewer Server Administration, what must an administrator user
do?
A. Assign the user, or a role the user belongs to, to the specified activity
B. Assign the user to the built-in administrator role thereby granting access to all activities
C. Create a SQL server login for the user and grant the user access to the mrInterviewData
database
D. Assign the user to a local Windows group profile on the server which has the required
access
Answer: A

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NO.4 What feature of IBM SPSS Data Collection Interviewer Server allows a customer to
define the
requirements for the allowed numbers of respondents who have certain characteristics such
as age,
gender, and/or socioeconomic class?
A. Interviewer Monitoring
B. User Management
C. Sample Management
D. Quota
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer reports that their installation failed with an error, indicating that the
PMSetup could not be
run and that the mrDPMServer3 service failed to start. From the pre-installation tasks of Data
Collection,
what are the missing permissions for the Running User which could lead to that error?
A. "Profile single process" and "Profile system performance"
B. "Create a token object" and "Create a pagefile?"Create a token object" and "Create a
pagefile
C. "Debug programs" and "Create global objects"
D. "Log on as a service" and "Log on as a batch job"
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is a pre-requisite for installing the IBM SPSS Data Collection
6.0.1 Server
software?
A. Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. Microsoft SharePoint
C. Microsoft BizTalk Server
D. Microsoft Exchange Server
Answer: A

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NO.7 A new version is added to a .mdd file each and every time a user does what?
A. Uploads or downloads a copy of the questionnaire from the Files activity in Interviewer
Server
Administration
B. Re-opens the mdd file in Author or Author Professional
C. Saves the .mdd file using Author or Author Professional
D. Activates a questionnaire
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer has a table created based on a data set in which the proportion of the
various groups in the
total population is not accurately reflected. What can be applied to the table to help balance
the
responses to more accurately reflect the true proportion?
A. Apply one of the available balancing mechanisms available in the Table Properties dialog
for Survey
Reporter to automatically balance the proportions of the various groups in the data set
B. Apply a filter to hide the appropriate portion of the respondent cases that results in
unbalanced data in
the total population
C. Apply an extrapolation algorithm to insert extra representative records to help balance the
data in the
total population
D. Apply weighting to the table to inflate responses from one portion of the total population
while deflating
responses from another
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Information Analyzer v8.5
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Exam Code: C2180-276
Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development
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NO.1 When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of
the reporting
functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records.
What steps can
you take to minimize performance impact?
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates;
apply duplicate
check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase
the number of
possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns;
incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is the correct HTTP API request format for creating a data rule
definition in an
existing project?
A. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?ruleDefinition
B. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?projectContent
C.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/project?projectName=<YourProjectName>
D.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/ruleDefinition?projectName=<YourProject
Name>&rule
Name=<YourRuleName>
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are working with a subject matter expert who does not have the Information
Server console
installed, but needs to receive a detailed value frequency distribution as a comma-delimited
(csv) file.
Which two of the following options can you use to deliver the required file? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the Investigate>Table Management functions, select the frequency distribution file;
export as a
Delimited file; and send the file.
B. Go to the Investigate>Publish Analysis Result functions, select the frequency distribution
file; export as
a Delimited file; and send the file.
C. Go to the Reports menu, select the Data Rule Frequency Distribution report; choose the
TXT output
option and generate the report; and provide the URL to the report output.
D. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getColumnOutputTable option
providing the
correct project and column names and the -csv format parameter; run the command and
send the file.
E. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getFrequencyDistribution
option providing
the correct project and column names and the -xsl format parameter to a csv-formatting
stylesheet ; run
the command and send the file.
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will
allow you to
troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are managing a business analyst who is annotating column profile details with
issues and
resolutions.
You wish to see how many annotations remain open for resolution. Which report should you
create and
review?
A. Metric Summary Project Status report
B. Metadata Summary-Column Profile Status report
C. Project Status- Project Summary by Notes Status report
D. Domain Quality Summary- Column Quality by Status report
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two
statements identify ways
you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 Which one of the following options is FALSE about DB2's Multi-Temperature Data
Storage capability?
A. You can use storage groups to implement multi-temperature data management in DB2.
B. Multi-temperature data management reduces the total cost of ownership by allowing
efficient
deployment of storage hardware with minimal administrative overhead.
C. Multi-temperature data management integrates with DB2's Workload Manager feature to
let you
prioritize your workloads based on the data being accessed.
D. Multi-temperature data management best practices recommend that cold data should be
stored in
faster devices in order to maximize overall system performance.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following options best defines the Label-Based Access Control (LBAC)
feature.?
A. DB2 LBAC allows you to use labels to reference database objects by a short name instead
of the full
qualified name.
B. DB2 LBAC lets you decide exactly who has write/read access to individual rows and
columns by
comparing the security labels between database objects and users.
C. DB2 LBAC monitors table data access and tables modifications made by database users.
D. DB2 LBAC is the DB2 authority in charge of issuing GRANT and REVOKE statements.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of the following options is CORRECT about Temporal Tables?
A. Temporal tables are complex to maintain and require major application changes.
B. Temporal tables require constant changes to the operating system timestamp in order to
navigate
through time in the database.
C. Temporal tables are used to model data in the past and present. They cannot be used to
model data in
the future.
D. Temporal tables are used to model data in the past, present, and future.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a DB2 instance?
A. A DB2 instance is just another name for DB2 Database.
B. A DB2 instance is a copy of a database that can be accessed standalone from the
database server.
C. A DB2 instance is a logical database manager environment where you catalog databases
and set
configuration parameters.
D. DB2 does not use instances. It requires only databases to operate.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which one of the following options is TRUE about High Availability and Disaster
Recovery (HADR)
feature?
A. HADR allows up to two HADR standby databases.
B. HADR allows up to three HADR standby databases.
C. HADR allows up to four HADR standby databases.
D. HADR allows up to five HADR standby databases.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which statement correctly applies to the versioning capability of C&DS?
A. Version control and object version labels ensure the latest versions of assets are being
used in
production processes.
B. Old object versions are automatically deleted to preserve storage.
C. An analyst can store a version of a file in development, and modify it until it is finalized and
ready to be
moved into a production process.
D. Versioning refers to the ability to merge multiple object versions into one version.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the steps to start creating a Time-based schedule in the Content Explorer?
A. Right-click the job, choose ?Right-click the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
B. Setup a message domain, then right-click the job, choose ?Setup a message domain, then
right-click
the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
C. Select the jobstep within the job, choose Schedule tab, enter scheduling details
D. Select the object (e.g. Modeler stream) to be executed by the job, choose File, New,
Create
Time-Based job schedule
Answer: A

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NO.3 If the 'Data Collection Execution Server' entry is not listed as a Type when attempting
to define a new
Server Definition, which of the following steps would you recommend to a customer to
resolve it?
A. Restart the application server for C&DS.
B. Verify the a connection to Data Collection can be established.
C. Verify the Data Collection Adapter is applied to C&DS.
D. Restart the database that houses the C&DS repository.
Answer: C

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NO.4 If problems occur during C&DS 5.0 repository configuration, which directory contains
the log files to
review for errors?
A. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/install/log
B. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/log
C. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/config/log
D. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/debug/ConfigTool/log
Answer: B

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NO.5 If the keystore file that is generated during the C&DS installation is inadvertently
deleted from the
system, which of the following steps must be performed to recover.?
A. Execute the genkey utility within the <C&DS_Install>\bin directory.
B. Enable encryption within the Tools => Security menu.
C. Manually create a new keystore file in the expected location.
D. C&DS will need to be reinstalled.
Answer: D

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NO.6 R&D fixed an issue with Modeler integration in Deployment Manager client. A Fix
Pack has been
released. For which product and which fix should the customer look on Fix Central?
A. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Server
B. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Adapter
C. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Server
D. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Adapter
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which section within Deployment Manager client would the user expand upon to see all
folders and
objects that she is authorized to view?
A. Submitted Jobs
B. Content Repository
C. Resource Definitions
D. Repository Insight
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator applied a patch to the C&DS installation and started the server. A
user, using the
Deployment Manager windows client, is complaining that an issue that the patch should have
fixed in the
client is not working. What should the administrator check to resolve this?
A. Ensure the user downloaded and manually installed the corresponding client patch.
B. Verify if the client license is still valid.
C. The only way to install a client update is to re-download the Deployment Manager client
from the server.
Make sure that this has been done.
D. Ensure the user restarted the Deployment Manager Windows client, after having received
a version
update message.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2040-910
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Exam Code: C2070-583
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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT true regarding WebSpere Portal v7.0 and VMware
support?
A. VMware can only be used when WebSphere Portal v7.0 is not clustered.
B. VMware can be used in a clustered WebShere Portal v7.0 environment.
C. VMware can be used in a non-clustered WebSphere Portal v7.0 environment.
D. VMware and WebSphere Portal v7.0 allow mass-replication of identical operating systems
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which option best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content
mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content
mapping from the
portal page where the content is rendered, and then delete the template library used to
create the wiki.
D. Statements A, B, and C are valid.
E. Only Statement A and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by
administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is
rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a portal farm.?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production
environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which statement is true about HP Care Pack Services?
A. HP Care Pack services are configurable to many devices with invoicing during the contract
duration,
B. HP Care Pack Services cover care services only.
C. HP Care Pack Services cover deployment, usage, and care services in both Consumer and Business
markets.
D. HP Care Pack Services cover a wide range of accessories (e.g.. mouse, key boards) that can be
purchased with HP hardware.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which service allows the business to keep and dispose of their defective hard drive if their
security policies require it?
A. Data Protection
B. Keep Safe
C. Defective Media Retention
D. Remote Delete
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which devices are covered by K2 Graphics support service line (printing)?
A. Corporate, Enterprise and Public sector HP Laserjet printers
B. HP Designjet printers
C. HP Tablets and Slates
D. HP Entry level Inkjet printers
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which areas do the HP Care Pack services cover for consumers?
A. Deployment, Usage, and Care
B. Configuration, Usage, and Care
C. Usage with HP Smart Friend only
D. Care services only
Answer: D

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NO.5 How do services help customers?
A. Services help customers maintain communications and trade with their customers and suppliers.
B. Services help employees be more productive and increase their value to the business.
C. Services help customers achieve their everyday business targets.
D. Services help customers configure business email on their cellular phones.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement is true about HP Printing and Personal Systems Attach Services?
A. Deployment services offer business customers preconfigured hardware with custom images. The
customer should, however, expect some disruptions during installation.
B. Deployment services gets hardware installed in businesses or connected at home, ready to use.
C. Consumer usage services enhance customer experience by offering a high level of security.
D. Usage services only target the Consumer market
Answer: B

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NO.1 A storage administrator is migrating data from a third party storage system to an HP 3PAR
StoreServ 7000 Storage System. The administrator needs to ensure that certain hosts will be
managed by only specific user accounts?
What should be included in the designed solution?
A. Common provisioning groups
B. Virtual domains
C. Active Directory Integration
D. Logical volumes
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer to migrate date to a new database environment. They need to make a physical
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availability.
Which form of replication should the customer use?
A. Asynchronous replication
B. Backup to disk
C. Clones
D. Snapshot
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a main benefit of HP StoreOnce deduplication?
A. It optimizes storage capacity to retain more data within a disk backup device.
B. It allows the devices that contain the data to be thinly provisioned.
C. It enables snapshot of deduplicated data to be made easily.
D. It encrypts data to prevent corruption during the backup cycle.
Answer: A

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Reference: http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13218_div/13218_div.pdf (page 4,
see improve backup efficiency with data deduplication)

NO.4 A customer plans to purchase an HP StoreVirtual 4330 System to use as a shared backup
repository. They need to select the storage system model that will help them maximize storage and
minimize storage and minimize costs.
Which type of devices should the HP StoreVirtual 4330 model contain?
A. 900 GB 10k drives
B. 1 TB 7.2k drives
C. 2 TB 7.2k drives
D. 3 TB 7.2k drives
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer needs to balance high availability and cost to meet various service level
agreements, depending on the application requirements.
Which storage methodology should the customer use?
A. Storage RAID
B. Storage tiering
C. Storage federation
D. Deduplication storage
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer is planning to migrate data from an HP EVA4400 to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000
Storage System.
What should the customer use to migrate the data?
A. Online Import
B. Recovery Manager
C. Remote Copy
D. Peer Motion
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer plans to implement an HP StoreVirtual 4130 Storage System.
They need 7 TB of usable capacity using network RAID 10.
How many HP StoreVirtual 4130 Storage will they need to meet this requirement?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: D

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NO.8 A company's storage infrastructure has grown dynamically, heterogeneously, and largest in
scale. As a result, the infrastructure is more difficult to merge. The company needs to eliminate
manual, repetitive, and error-prone administrative tasks.
What should the company use to achieve this goal?
A. Thin provisioning
B. Storage tiring
C. Hierarchical storage management
D. Autonomic management
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://www.ts.avnet.com/uk/vendors/hp/assets/hp_p10000_3par_architecture_white_paper.pdf
(page 2, last bulleted point on the page)

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Exam Code: HP0-J67
Exam Name: Architecting Multi-site HP Storage Solutions
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NO.1 What are challenges when selecting traffic from UC&C soft devices for marking, in order to
apply the appropriate prioritization? (Select two.)
A. UC&C traffic uses dynamic port numbers.
B. UC&C traffic is not peer-to-peer
C. UC&C traffic is routable.
D. UC&C traffic uses well-known port numbers.
E. UC&C traffic can share a port, mac,and VLAN combination with non-UC&C traffic.
Answer: A,D

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Reference:http://johnacook.files.wordpress.com/ 2014 / 03 / 2014_02_27_use_case.pdf(page 7, bullet #
2)

NO.2 Which OpenFlow version introduces multiple flow tables?
A. 1.0
B. 1.1
C. 1.2
D. 1.3
Answer: D

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Reference:https://wiki.opendaylight.org/images/d/dc/Openflow1.3_Support_for_Opendaylight.pdf

NO.3 An SDN developer wants to develop a new OpenFlow proactive application using the HP VAN
SDN Controller. The controller is configured with IP address 192.168.56.7 and is using release
2.0. The developer is unsure of the REST APIs available on the controller.
To which URL should you recommend the developer navigate?
A. https://192.168.56.7:8443 /api
B. https://192.168.56.7:8443 /sdn/ui
C. http://192.168.56.7:8443 /api
D. http://192.168.56.7:8443 /sdn/ui
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company has an IRF-based, 2-tier FlexFabric architecture in its data center. The company is
now increasing the amount of server virtualization and also adding more redundant connections
across the network infrastructure backbone. Which benefit does software-defined networking (SDN)
provide for this FlexFabric solution?
A. SDN applications can extend the virtual switches inside hosts into the control plane of multiple
physical infrastructure devices.
B. SDN can help core routing switches handle more routing table entries without sacrificing
performance.
C. SDN extends the SNMP MIBs to include MIBs for virtual switches.
D. SDN applications can help to provision network connectivity for virtual machines and to forward
traffic across complex meshes of links
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx/ 4AA44714ENW.pdf?jumpid=em_r1165_w
w/en/large/eg/RelatedLink/Virtual_Application_Networks_Ove
rview_FAQs/resourcefinder/Jan_2013

NO.5 An administrator wants to secure the connection between an HP Provision switch and HP VAN
SDN Controller What is the recommended approach to securing the OpenFlow messages?
A. Use CA-signed certificates on an HP VAN SDN Controller and the HP Provision switches, and then
use TLS to secure communication.
B. Use OpenFlow message type 5 on the auxiliary channel to secure OpenFlow messages.
C. Use an IPsec VPN between the HP Provision switch and the HP VAN SDN Controller to secure
OpenFlow messages.
D. Use self-signed certificates on an HP VAN SDN Controller and the HP Provision switches, and then
use TLS to secure communication.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is one benefit of a software-defined networking (SDN) solution for a WAN?
A. SDN applications can automatically deploy key services on branch zl or MSR modules in case of a
failed WAN connection.
B. SDN applications provide a remote connection to servers so that remote IT staff can identify and
resolve issues.
C. SDN applications provide a graphical interface for scripting CLI commands for multiple branches
at once.
D. SDN applications can adjust WAN bandwidth provisioning granularly, dynamically, and
intelligently.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has a network consisting of 90 switches running OpenFlow 1.0.
High Availability is not required as a hybrid network is being used.
Which license types does the customer need to purchase? (Select two.)
A. HP VAN SDN Ctrl 100-node E-LTU
B. HP VAN SDN Ctrl HA E-LTU
C. HP VAN SDN Ctrl Base SWw/ 100-node E-LTU
D. HP VAN SDN Ctrl Base SW w/ 50-node E-LTU
E. HP VAN SDN Ctrl 50-node E-LTU
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 What are the addressing requirements for an HP VAN SDN Controller team?
A. A team requires two IP addresses for each controller, plus one IP address assigned to the team.
B. A team requires one IP address for each controller, plus one IP address assigned to the team.
C. A team requires one IP address, and members communicate using their MAC addresses.
D. A team requires one IP address for each controller; each is configured with the same multicast
address.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A team requires one IP address for each controller, plusone IP address assigned to theteam. If the
current team manager goes down, the failover process includes keeping the team IP address active
on the new team manager.
Reference:http://h20566.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/doc
Display/resource.process/?spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BI&spf_p.rid_kbDocDisplay=docDisplay
ResURL&javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kbDocDisplay=wsrpresour
ceState%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c040031142%257CdocLocale%253D&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=c
om.vignette.cachetoken(page 54)

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NO.1 Why is selling HP StoreEasy such a big opportunity?
A. NAS storage gives customers data encryption
B. HP needs to compete with NetApp and EMC
C. File Storage is the fastest growing storage market
D. NAS storage is only used in the SMB market
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which components in their environments would a customer new to virtualization need to
change to
successfully implement a virtualized solution?
A. 2 tier network implementation
B. Monolithic or legacy storage
C. Last generation servers
D. VMware licensing
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement describes one of the key business benefits of Exchange?
A. This version of Exchange enables administrator controlled replication of data, which
canminimize disruptions dramatically and spare organizations from data loss
B. It allows user to share screens and reduces the need for costly internal face face-tofacemeetings
C. Exchange mailbox size can be very much larger, which substantially reduces the need forcostly
IT admin time to manage mailbox sizes
D. Exchange eliminates all help desk costs by enabling users to perform all tasks that
wouldnormally require a help desk call
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which HP storage product is designed for flexbile file and application storage and can scale
from
hundreds to thousands of users?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ
B. HP StoreAll
C. HP StoreEasy
D. HP MSA
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which security feature does NOT apply to the HP StoreEasy product family?
A. Centrally managed policies protecting data based on business value
B. Antivirus software running on additional hardware servers
C. BitLocker Drive Encryption protecting data on removable media
D. File system encryption protecting data at rest
Answer: B

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NO.6 Why do customers new to virtualization need to have a SAN?
A. It simplifies their storage management
B. It reflects that their business has grown from a small to a medium business
C. All their competitors have bought one
D. It provides them with support for DR/HA features
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the key difference to communicate when positioning an HP StoreVirtual VSA system
against an HP StoreVirtual 4000?
A. The HP StoreVirtual VSA is a software product that utilizes an existing x86 platform for usein
remote office and branch office locations
B. The HP StoreVirtual VSA offers Business Critical and Disaster Recovery capability
C. The HP StoreVirtual VSA has full integration with VMware vSphere software
D. The HP StoreVirtual 4000 uses the iSCSI protocol
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the biggest risk of performing tape backup at branch offices?
A. There may be restrictions on the backup window
B. The task is left to non-IT staff
C. The software may fail
D. The tape devcie may be unreliable
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-N41
Exam Name: Selling HP ArcSight Information Security Solutions
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NO.1 What is a benefit of a holistic approach to security?
A. Decreasing the number of new security breaches
B. Proactive risk reduction: seeing everything, providing context, and acting appropriately
C. Increasing the protection of your cloud environment
D. Firefighting to solve a problem when a breach occurs
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the key message about HP's Global security research efforts?
A. Collaborative effort of HP teams: DVLabs, ArcSight, Fortify, HP Labs
B. Discovering two times more software vulnerabilities than other IPS, NGFW vendors and
continuously finding more than the rest of the market combined
C. SANS, CERT, NIST, OSVDB, software and reputation vendors contributing information to the
ThreatLinQ security portal
D. Over 2000 customers helping DVLabs collect network and security data from around the globe
Answer: A

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Reference:https://h30613.www3.hp.com/media/files/downloads/Non-FilmedSessions/DT3058_Bla
ckmer.pdf(slide 12)

NO.3 Which statements are true about HP ArcSight solution architecture as a platform for
monitoring modern threats and risks? (Select three.)
A. It measures security effectiveness across people, process, and technology.
B. It includes dynamic analytics and policy enforcement, as well as predictive intelligence.
C. It accelerates time-to-value for achieving secure applications.
D. It captures logs, correlates events, monitors applications, checks for fraud, and provides manager
uses and controls.
E. It is augmented by services expertise and the most advanced security user community:
Protect724.
F. It delivers risk intelligence from application development to improve operational security.
Answer: A,D,E

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Reference:http://www.realsec.com/risk2012 /predavanja/RiSK%202012,%20HP%20ES,%20Advancin
g%20the%20enterprise %20beyond%20tactical%20security.pdf(slide 26)

NO.4 Enterprises and governments are facing the most aggressive threat environment in their
history.
What is the main issue that is causing attacks to be more profound or wide-reaching?
A. Adversaries have become smarter, better organized, and more persistent as they look to gain
information capital and IP .
B. At any point in time, there are 200-300 potential security vulnerabilities representing thousands
of potential ways to be exploited.
C. Very few technology executives can confidently answer the simple question from their CEO: "How
secure is my business?"
D. Cyber threats are proven to be proliferating much slower.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which disruptive technology trend is relevant to ArcSight?
A. The decrease in the traditional corporate perimeter
B. Complexity resulting from removing blind spots
C. The increased drive to adopt new technologies
D. The decline of security compliance
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.sap.com/germany/about/events/SAP-Forum-Public-Services2012 /pdfs/WS1_
Lemke.pdf(slide 3)

NO.6 Which problems does HP EnterpriseView address?
A. mines data from across the entire enterprise, including HP Server Automation, HP Network
Automation, and HP Operations Orchestration
B. collects, analyzes, and correlates your servers' data to give you better visibility into your risk
C. lets customers track their compliance state across their virtualized environments and helps
manage their software compliance regulations
D. provides vulnerability management, asset profiling, risk management
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.secure.edu.pl/pdf/ 2012 /D2_1045_P_Hnevkovsky.pdf(slide 24)

NO.7 The HP TippingPoint Network Defense System is a complete set of security solutions that does
what?
A. Delivers risk intelligence from application development to improve operational security
B. Measures security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
C. Addresses advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business
D. Includes dynamic analytics and policy deployment, as well as zero-day defense
E. Protects business critical applications from cyber attacks
Answer: C

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