2013年8月31日星期六

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Exam Code: HP2-B65
Exam Name: HP HP Imaging and Printing Sales Fundamentals HP2-B65
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is the HP Marketing Resource Center?
A. a new HP service for HP partners who provide printed marketing material on demand
B. anew HP print center for end users who provide customer-designed marketing material
C. anewly created team of marketing experts that provide in-house training for HP partners
D. anHP resource for document templates, free training classes, and success stories
Answer: D

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NO.2 When would a company typically use outsourced printing.?
A. when they have several small print jobs
B. when medium or high volumes of static documents are required
C. when confidential document printing is required
D. when short turnaround time is required
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the advantage of a multifunction printer? A. It can be networked to more end users than a
networked single function printer.
B. It uses fewer supplies than a single function printer.
C. It takes up less floor space than individual devices for faxing, scanning, printing and copying.
D. Once it has reached its monthly print volume it automatically turns off so there are no excess
copy charges to the client.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What should a business do before deciding to print in-house?
A. determine if they can get a bulk discount on glossy paper
B. use the HP Print Cost Calculator to determine if it is cost effective to print a job in-house
C. hire a local print shop employee on a contract basis to help develop in-house material
D. find a contractor to create the design
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which imaging and printing trend is an industry trend?
A. seeking information on the Internet
B. convergence of multiple functions into one device
C. using templates to create a business brand
D. paperless offices
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Z12
Exam Name: HP Servicing HP Networking Products HP2-Z12
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NO.1 Which HP A Series switches provide Layer 2 functionality and a Web browser interface but no CLI?
A. HP A5800 Series switches
B. HP NJ2000GIntelliJack switches
C. HP A3600-E1 Series switches
D. HP A3100 Series switches
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which E Series switches require two power supplies to be completely operational? (Select two.)
A. HP E4200vl switch
B. HP E5406zl switch
C. HP E5412zl switch
D. HP E2900 al switch
E. HP E8212zl switch
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 You log in to an HP A Series switch over a console session in order to establish IP connectivity
between the switch and the rest of the network. What is the minimum user privilege level needed to
complete this task?
A. Operator
B. Monitor
C. System
D. Manage
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have been sent to a customer site to check an HP E8212 zlswitch. When you arrive, you notice
that the Fault and Fan Status LEDs are flashing. What is the most likely cause of this LED behavior?
A. The cooling fan is no longer functional
B. The switch is brand new and needs to have the most current firmware installed.
C. The external power supply has failed, causing the fan to malfunction.
D. The switch has failed its self-test
Answer: C

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NO.5 You check the startup-config on an HP A Series switch and find that the switch uses myconfig.cfg as
the main startup-config and has no backup config. What happens if you use the undo startup
savedconfiguration command?
A. The myconfig.cfg file is deleted, and the switch returns to factory default settings at the next reboot.
B. The myconfig.cfg file becomes the backup startup-config, and the switch returns to factory default
settings at the next reboot.
C. The myconfig.cfg file becomes the backup startup-config, and is booted at the next reboot unless you
set another main startup-config
D. The myconfig.cfg file is retained in the switch's memory, but the switch returns to factory default
settings at the next reboot
Answer: D

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NO.6 A faulty configuration on an HP A Series switch locked a customer out of the management interface.
You bypass the configuration and gain access to the switch's CLI.Your manager asks
you to send her the configuration to examine.
What must you do?
A. Establish IP connectivity between the switch and a BackUp the Startup-Config to a TFTP Server server
and issue the backup command
B. Use the copy command to copy the configuration to your management station.
C. Establish IP connectivity between the switch and your management station and use the save
command to save the configuration.
D. Use the saved-configuration command to select the startup-config and save it out to your management
station.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are troubleshooting a connection on an HP A Series switch that has one LED per-port. You want to
know if the port is operating in the wrong duplex mode. How do you use the LED to obtain relevant
information?
A. Click the Mode button until the mode LED is blinkinggreenand thencheck the port LED.
B. Click the Mode button until the mode LED is yellow and thencheck the port LED.
C. Check if the port LED is blinking,which indicates its duplex status (while its color indicates speed).
D. Check the color of the port LED, which indicates its duplex status (while its blinking indicates speed).
Answer: B

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NO.8 DRAG DROP
Match the HP A Series switch user interface with the type of access that it controls.
Answer:

NO.9 Several HP A Series switches are distinguished by a dual-personality (or combo) port. What is an
accurate description of this port?
A. It can accept either Ethernet Base-T cable or fiber optic cable
B. It can accept either Ethernet Base-T cable or a small form-factor pluggable (SFP) transceiver
C. It is a pair of ports. One accepts Ethernet Base-T cable and one accepts a small form-factor pluggable
(SFP) transceiver. Both can be used simultaneously.
D. It is a pair of ports. One accepts Ethernet Base-T cable and one accepts a small form-factor pluggable
(SFP) transceiver. Only one can be used at a time.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are installing a redundant power supply in an HP E8212 zl switch. Which procedures are
recommended when installing the new power supply?(Select two.)
A. Remove the copper RFI shielding.
B. Attach the new power supply to a different AC power source than the existing power supply to provide
true redundancy.
C. Tighten the retaining screws on the new power supply until they are snug but not over-tight.
D. Connect the redundant power supply to the AC power source before installing it in the switch.
E. Remove the grounding tap from the console port before installing the power supply.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 You are servicing an HP A Series switch, which is currently using a file call myconfig.cfg for the
startup-config. You want to preserve your new configuration changes in the switch's startup config.
Which command should you use?
A. write memory
B. save
C. save startup.cfg
D. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which device forwards network traffic based only on Layer 2 information?
A. router
B. switch
C. hub
D. firewall
Answer: C

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NO.13 The exhibit shows the Power and seven-segment LEDs of an HP A Series switch. What is the switch's
status?
Exhibit:
A. The switch has member ID 8 in the cluster.
B. The switch has member ID 8 in the cluster, but its attempt to join the cluster has failed.
C. The switch has failed the power on self test (POST) with ID 8.
D. Port number 8 has failed the switch's power on self test (POST).
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are troubleshooting an HP A Series switch. You attempt to log in to both the CLI and the Web
browser interface in several different ways, but you are always prompted for credentials. The customer
tells you that the person who created the passwords is no longer employed by the company. What can
you do to access the switch?
A. Use the failsafe credentials, admin for username and password for password.
B. Press the Reset and Clear buttons on the switch's front panel, holding them for at least 5 seconds, to
clear the password
C. Access the Boot ROM menu and bypass the configuration, starting the switch at factory default
settings.
D. Access the switch over a direct console connection, which always permits access without a password.
Answer: C

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NO.15 How can you check the status of the ports that are providing Power over Ethernet (PoE) on an HP
E2610-PWR switch?
A. Use the Mode button to selectPoE and then view the port Link and Mode LEDs
B. Use the Port Locator button to selectPoE and then view the port Status and Link LEDs.
C. View the portPoE LED.
D. Use the switch'sPoE LED and the PoE LED for each port.
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are installing an HP A Series switch that requires a backup power supply as well as extra power for
Power over Ethernet (PoE) devices. Which device should you connect to this switch?
A. RPS 1200 A
B. RPS 1000 A3
C. RPS 800 A
D. RPS500 A3
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which area of the network is considered the backbone?
A. data center
B. core
C. distribution layer
D. LAN access layer
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which HP E Switch Series is specifically designed to be deployed in a data center?
A. E4200vl
B. E6200yl
C. E6600
D. E8200zl
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which switch is specifically designed for networks that require basic connectivity and have little or no IT
support?
A. fixed-port switch
B. light Layer 3 switch
C. modular switch
D. unmanaged switch
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are installing an SFP transceiver in an HP A Series switch's SFP port. Which steps should you
perform? (Select two.)
A. Connect the fiber optic cable to the SFP transceiver before installing the transceiver.
B. Slide the transceiver into the SFP port until the spring clips catch.
C. Rotate the clasp, if present on the front of the transceiver, until it catches the knob.
D. Press and hold the spring clips on the SFP port
E. Press and hold the release button below the SFP port.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: HP0-J44
Exam Name: HP Advanced SAN Architecture HP0-J44
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NO.1 What are the primary responsibilities of the SAN architect? (Select three.)
A. Ensuring data availability
B. Solving revision conflicts
C. Solving management problems
D. Ensuring data protection
E. Solving SAN scalability issues
F. Ensuring database consistency or validity
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 Which blocksize should you choose for a profile requiring performance-critical random access
applications?
A. 2,048 bytes.
B. 4,096 bytes
C. 8,192 bytes
D. 16,384 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which HP tool can be used to validate the integrity of your customer's current SAN environment prior to
a SAN upgrade?
A. HPStorageWorks SAN Validation
B. HPStorageWorks SAN Sizer
C. HPStorageWorks SAN Designer
D. HPStorageWorks Essentials SAN Visibility
Answer: D

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NO.4 During a SAN switch assessment on a B-series switch, a SAN architect notices that the switch is
partitioned in a set of logical switches. What is the name of this feature?
A. Inter VSAN Routing
B. Transparent Routing
C. Virtual Fabric
D. VSAN
Answer: C

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NO.5 When designing a solution for a customer, there are different ways of looking at or viewing the SAN
architecture that is part of that solution. What are two of the four SAN architecture views? (Select two.)
A. Business view
B. SAN functional view
C. Storage centric view
D. Stakeholder view
E. SAN switch view
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 While designing the SAN to meet your customer's throughput requirements, you need to configure
several 4Gb/s B-Series SAN switches with inter-switch links. What is the maximum throughput available
using a trunk group between 2 switches?
A. 8Gb/s
B. 16Gb/s
C. 32Gb/s
D. 64Gb/s
Answer: C

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NO.7 What must you consider before you merge an old fabric with a new SAN implementation?
A. Active array controller ports must be taken offline to allow both fabrics to merge.
B. Zone configurations must be disabled on the existing fabrics.
C. New switches must be set to the same domain ID as the existing switches.
D. Each switch in the merged fabric must have a unique domain ID.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When considering a proof of concept model for a customer with a Customer Relation Database (CRM)
environment requiring high bandwidth, which size do you expect for the majority of I/O requests?
A. less than 8K
B. less than 100k
C. greater than 1MB
D. greater than 100k
Answer: D

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NO.9 Continuous Access XP software products allow host-independent, real-time, remote data mirroring
between XP disk arrays. If you are designing a solution that requires no performance impact on the host
application, but the link between sites is not necessarily highly available, what is the best choice?
A. CA for XP Sync
B. CA for XPAsync
C. CA for XP Journal
D. CA for XP Link Extension
Answer: C

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NO.10 When considering the cabling of a new SAN environment with 8Gb/s switches, what is the maximum
distance per cable segment using OM2 fiber optic cables?
A. 50 meters
B. 150 meters
C. 380 meters
D. 500 meters
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-S30
Exam Name: HP Design and Implementation of HP SIM and HP Insight Control HP0-S30
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NO.1 From which components do the Insight Foundation Agents collect data in order to provide
management information to HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. operating system
B. system drivers
C. management host
D. serial and parallel ports
E. memory subsystem
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 What happens when an event is generated that affects an entire rack or enclosure?
A. Several systems within the rack or enclosure can generate a trap, but they are filtered by HP SIM to
only show one event per rack or enclosure.
B. Multiple traps are received by HP SIM and can cause multiple events to trigger multiple notification
alerts.
C. An alert is logged for each server associated with the enclosure, but the same event increases a
counter each time the same trap is received.
D. Traps are received from a server, but they are not associated with the enclosure and are managed
independently.
Answer: A

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NO.3 HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) indicates a minor degraded state on a managed system. You
investigate further by clicking on the Hardware status (HW) link. HP SIM should launch another page with
the System Management Home (SMH). Instead, a "Page not found" message displays. What can cause
this issue.?
A. A firewall is configured on the target managed node that prevents port 50000 from communicating with
HP SIM.
B. The system is no longer available or the system is down and HP SIM has not yet updated the minor
status to critical status.
C. HP SIM is referencing the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) when launching the SMH and cannot
resolve the IP to the FQDN.
D. The community strings do not match between HP SIM and the target managed node and therefore
cannot display the SMH.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What must you enable before performing an offline analysis with Insight Control performance
management? (Select two.)
A. Alerting
B. Discovery
C. Logging
D. Monitoring
E. Reporting
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 What type of information displays when you place your cursor over a server blade graphic in the HP
SIM picture view? (Select two.)
A. server name
B. slot or bay number
C. contact information
D. rack location
E. server role
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What must you consider regarding the central management server (CMS) when managing a Windows
environment with HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A. Timeout values for processing WMI information from Windows-based systems might need to be
changed on the CMS.
B. All systems being managed must have a trust relationship with the CMS for single sign-on (SSO).
C. There must be a WMI Mapper installed on the CMS or on another server on the network.
D. All Windows-based systems must be in the same domain as the CMS.
Answer: C

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NO.7 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Match the type of collection available in HP SIM with its characteristic.
Answer:

NO.8 You received an SNMP Authentication trap, but did not receive a notification in HP Systems Insight
Manager (HP SIM). What could cause this?
A. The default setting for Enabling Trap Handling in SNMP extensions was disabled in HP SIM.
B. The trap received was not sent from a managed node that is in the authorized list.
C. A filter was set in the discovery task to ignore these authentication traps by default.
D. A trust relationship was not established between HP SIM and the managed node sending the trap.
Answer: A

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NO.9 How many agents are there in the HP Insight Management Agents family?
A. one monolithic agent for all devices
B. four: a server, NIC, storage, and foundation agent
C. five: a server, NIC, storage, foundation, and Version Control Agent
D. six: a server, NIC, storage, foundation, client, and Version Control Agent
Answer: C

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NO.10 You noticed that a system that was being monitored by Insight Control performance management has a
critical status in the PF column. However, the HW status displays as "normal". What could cause this to
occur?
A. The HP management agents have been downgraded.
B. Network teaming was enabled on the managed server.
C. Performance monitoring was disabled in HP SIM for that managed server.
D. The license was removed from that managed server within HP SIM.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which type of component is considered part of the HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
management domain?
A. central management server (CMS)
B. network client
C. any third-party device
D. any management information base (MIB) compiled device
Answer: A

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NO.12 What must you consider when configuring community strings?
A. They must be unique to each system that is being managed.
B. HP SIM and managed systems must have matching community strings.
C. The community strings must not be more than eight characters long.
D. All systems must be configured with a write community string.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which feature of HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) enables you to view contract and warranty
information for managed systems?
A. ProLiant Essentials
B. Integrity Essentials
C. Storage Essentials Enterprise Suite
D. Service Essentials Remote Support Pack
Answer: D

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NO.14 What should you consider when monitoring devices using the DMI protocol?
A. Only systems that have event indication subscriptions configured in HP Systems Insight Manager (HP
SIM) are managed by DMI.
B. Only desktops and workstations communicating with the central management server (CMS) are
identified by the DMI protocol.
C. To be identified by DMI, managed systems running Windows or HP-UX must run the same operating
system as the CMS.
D. A Management Information File (MIF) must be compiled in HP SIM for each device model being
managed by the DMI protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.15 How much can HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) 6.X scale?
A. HP SIM can manage 2,500 operating system instances.
B. HP SIM can manage 5,000 physical and virtual machines plus supporting iLOs and OAs.
C. HP SIM can manage 10,000 physical and virtual machines.
D. HP SIM is limited by the amount of memory on the central management server (CMS).
Answer: B

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NO.16 What should you do when enabling the WMI Mapper in HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A. Run the identification task to properly identify systems that are running WMI.
B. Run the software polling task to return WMI information for managed systems.
C. Rerun the discovery task to discover systems that are running WMI.
D. Run a hardware polling task to get status information in WMI instrumented devices.
Answer: A

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NO.17 When performing a remote installation of Insight Remote Support, you receive an error stating that the
install cannot proceed. What can cause this issue?
A. A SIMadmin user with administrative privileges is not performing the installation.
B. The installation requires that FTP be installed on the remote server before installing Insight Remote
Support.
C. The installation initiated from a Microsoft Remote Desktop (RDP) session that does not have the active
desktop session.
D. The installation requires that you run Insight Software Advisor, which launches the full installation of
Insight Control.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the default view of the BladeSystem page in BladeSystem Integrated Manager?
A. Icons
B. Location
C. Table
D. Tree
Answer: D

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NO.19 HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) can be hosted on which operating environments? (Select
three.)
A. HP-UX
B. Linux
C. OVMS
D. Windows
E. Solaris
F. AIX
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.20 What is a good indicator that Insight Control performance management has not been installed with HP
SIM?
A. The status of the managed devices under the HW column shows "unknown" status.
B. The system table view does not show a PF column.
C. The System Management Homepage does not display any performance information.
D. The Tool menu in HP SIM does not display any performance management options.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J46
Exam Name: HP Designing and Implementation HP Enterprise Backup Solution HP0-J46
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which device is the bottleneck in an EBS environment with optimum performance?
A. switch
B. server
C. primary storage
D. tape drive
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which component in a Symantec NetBackup solution is responsible for scheduling and tracking client
backups?
A. Media Server
B. Cell Server
C. Master Server
D. Storage Manager
Answer: C

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NO.3 What must you do with Emulex HBAs connected to fabric switches when implementing an EBS solution?
(Select two.)
A. Install them in the last PCI slots of each server.
B. Ensure that all entries in the registry for the HBAs are set to 0.
C. Verify that the topology adapter parameter is set to 1.
D. Disable any unused ports.
E. Verify that the link speed is the same for the HBA and the connected SAN switch port.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which best practice should be followed when configuring a Virtual Library System 9000 for backup in an
EBS environment?
A. Enable software and hardware compression to increase performance.
B. Use small cartridges to raise thededuplication ratio.
C. Use Echo Copy to mirror backups within the VLS.
D. Use ten characters when creating barcode labels to support all backup ISVs.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are implementing a D2D4100 array with deduplication. What can you do to increase the backup
performance?
A. Set the device blocksize as low as possible.
B. Set the segment size to 2GB.
C. Set the host concurrency parameter in the backup application to its maximum.
D. Set the device concurrency parameter in the backup application to 1.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M36
Exam Name: HP HP Data Protector Software Fundamentals for Windows HP0-M36
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 The HP Data Protector Software Backup Session Manager runs on which system(s) in the cell?
A. Cell Manager only
B. client only
C. dedicated installation server
D. client and Cell Manager
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the maximum size of a file depot for Windows?
A. 500GB
B. 600GB
C. 1TB
D. 2TB
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a media pool?
A. logical collection of media that belong together
B. collection of data that should be backed up
C. concept that enables faster backup and restore
D. physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true about an HP Data Protector Software session restore?
A. It is fast because it is restoring only whole volumes.
B. Objects from a backup are restored in parallel.
C. It does not require any control as it is restoring everything.
D. The database will not be used.
Answer: B

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NO.5 By default, which file is the HP Data Protector Software database recovery file?
A. obrindex.dat
B. obdb.dat
C. obdatafiles.dat
D. obdbrecovery.dat
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y33
Exam Name: HP Implementing HP Wireless Networks HP0-Y33
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 which feature should you enable to enhance Layer 2 (L2) roaming?
A. seamless roaming
B. rapid authentication
C. WPA2 Opportunistic Key Caching
D. single network AP hopping
Answer: C

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NO.2 In the configuration of an E-MSM760 controller, you find that the default VSC is access controlled.
Which statements are true about an inbound packet on the LAN port which does not have a VLAN tag?
(Select two.)
A. The packet is dropped if the destination IP address is not the same as the MSM controllerIP address on
the LAN port.
B. The packet is associated with that VSC if the packet has a known SSID tag.
C. The packet is dropped as the LAN port will only accept VLAN tagged packets.
D. The packet is associated with the default VSC if it has no matching SSID tag.
E. The packet is dropped if the destination IP address is not the same as the MSM controllerIP address on
the LAN port.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 .What are the major benefits of creating a team of controllers? (Select two.)
A. controller redundancy
B. Flow support
C. local DHCP support
D. PPTP client and server support
E. single IP management of all team controllers
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 In your existing wireless network you have a variety of E-MSM controllers. Which products are capable
of supporting teaming? (Select two.)
A. E-MSM710
B. E-MSM730
C. E-MSM750
D. E-MSM760
E. E-MSM765zl
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 When configuring the MSM controller for a controlled mode network, at which point is the AP's VSC
egress VLAN configured?
A. when the Group is created
B. when the AP is synchronized with its Group
C. when the specified VLAN is created
D. when the VSC is bound to the Group
Answer: D

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NO.6 After completing the configuration and synchronization of all team members, you discover through your
initial testing that your APs cannot associate with your team controllers. To solve this problem what should
you check?
A. that your VSC DHCP parameters are set correctly
B. that you have enabled your local DHCP server on your Team Manager (controller)
C. that an external DHCP server exists and is operational on your network
D. that DHCP Relay has been configured on all your team members (controllers)
Answer: C

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NO.7 When Centralized Access Control is configured as Automatic, when is a user data tunnel created?
A. when more than one controller is on the network that has the same access control configuration
B. when tunnels are manually configured and available
C. when IPSec is set up between two controllers
D. when a synchronized AP and its controller are on different subnets
Answer: D

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NO.8 On a VSC, which Traffic Type options can be specified for egress VLANs? (Select three.)
A. default gateway traffic
B. IP filtered traffic
C. authenticated traffic
D. untagged traffic
E. intercepted traffic
F. unauthenticated traffic
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.9 An HP E-MSM760 Controller receives untagged traffic on its LAN port from a wireless client associated
with an access point from another manufacturer. In a WLAN configured with VSCs 1-4, which VSC will be
selected to pass this traffic?
A. VSC 2
B. VSC 3
C. VSC 4
D. default VSC
Answer: D

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NO.10 When would the IP address of the Internet port on an MSM controller be set to "No Address"?
A. when NAT is enabled
B. when only authenticated traffic is passing through the Internet port
C. when NAT is disabled
D. when only VLAN traffic is passing through the Internet port
Answer: D

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NO.11 A financial institution needs to deploy 80 access points in their new building. Since the institution is not
interested in purchasing additional wired switches for their LAN infrastructure, which solution should be
recommended to manage the access points?
A. HP A3000-24G-PoE+ Wireless Switch
B. HP A-WX5002 Access Controller
C. HP A-WX5004 Access Controller
D. HP A7500/E7900 Access Controller Module
Answer: C

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NO.12 In order to create a new VLAN in an MSM controller configuration, which path should you take to
access the correct screen?
A. VSCs>[select a VSC]>VSC Profile
B. VSCs>VSC bindings>VLANs
C. Controller>Management>VLANs
D. Controller>Network>Ports
Answer: D

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NO.13 Your controller's Team Manager has suffered a catastrophic failure and an Interim Manager has been
selected. Which action is required to allow the Interim Manager to distribute a new software release to its
team members?
A. The Interim Manager is promoted to Team Manager status.
B. The Interim Manager is rebooted and reconfigured as the new Team Manager.
C. The Interim Manager promotes another team member to Team Manager and the new TeamManager
uploads the new software to the team members.
D. Each Team Member is manually upgraded from the Interim Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the maximum number of E-MSM controllers that can be configured into a single team?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: E

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
You have deployed a guest wireless service in the reception area of a marketing firm. The clients
associated with the guest service should be assigned to VLAN 10. When you test the configuration,
clients are being assigned IP addresses in the 192.168.0.0 subnet. You view the access controller
configuration shown in the exhibit.
Which command resolves the issue by correctly associating VLAN 10 with the appropriate interface.?
A. [sysname-wlan-st-1] port access vlan 10
B. [sysname-WLAN-ESS1] port access vlan 10
C. [sysname-GigabitEthernet1/0/1] port access vlan 10
D. [sysname-Vlan-interface10] port access vlan 10
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y29
Exam Name: HP Installing an HP Networking IP Telephony Solution HP0-Y29
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
You have provisioned MAC address data for a phone as shown in the exhibit. What happens when the
phone powers up?
A. The phone prompts for a password without prompting for a phone number. If the correct
password for phone number 1102 is entered, the phone registers as phone number 1102.
B. The phone prompts for a phone number. If 1102 is input, the phone completes registration without
prompting for a password. If any other phone number is input, the phone prompts for a password.
C. The phone does not prompt for a phone number or password, but registers automatically with phone
number 1102.
D. The phone is not allowed to register because it is not locked.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? When a call rings into the ACD group
it rings all members of the group simultaneously. The call will continue to ring all members
until it is answered or until the predetermined total timeout is reached.
A. Calling Group
B. Most Idle Agent
C. Least Call Count
D. Circular
E. Linear
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? This method uses an ordered list of
agents for the group. When a call rings into the ACD group it is routed to the next agent on the list
following the agent whom last answered a call for the ACD group. If that agent does not answer the call
after a preset amount of time the call will be routed to the next agent on the list.
The call will continue to be transferred in this pattern until it is answered or until the predetermined total
timeout is reached.Then the call will be sent to the call coverage for the ACD group.
A. Linear
B. Circular
C. Calling Group
D. Least Call Count
E. Most Idle Agent
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statements are true about the "Export Data" capability on VCX.? (Select two.)
A. Exported data may be viewed on the Central Management Console.
B. The call processor service must be stopped before exporting data.
C. It is only possible to export data from one data table at a time.
D. Data may be exported to a file.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? The call is routed first to the agent
whom has answered fewer ACD calls than any other agent. If that agent does not answer after a preset
amount of time the call will be routed to the agent in that group with the next-lowest call count. The callwill
continue to be transferred in this pattern until it is answered or until the predetermined total timeout is
reached.
A. Linear
B. Calling Group
C. Least Call Count
D. Circular
E. Most Idle Agent
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B54
Exam Name: HP Large Format Technical Fundamentals HP2-B54
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which optional connectivity solution is a feature of the HP Designjet 4X20 series?
A. Firewire
B. Embedded Gigabit Ethernet
C. Parallel
D. Jetdirect print servers
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does the HP Designjet Z6100, 60-inch (152cm) model include?
A. a media basket and a take-up reel as standard
B. a take-up reel only as standard
C. a media basket only as standard
D. both dye and UV ink systems as standard
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the features of the HP Designjet 111 with Tray printer.?
A. It is an A1 roll-fed printer.
B. It is a network-ready four-color printer with excellent line printing capabilities.
C. It is a six-color printer used for excellent graphic-quality printing.
D. It is a four-color sheet-fed printer with an optional roll feed.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which HP Designjet printers load roll-fed media from the rear? (Select two.)
A. 111 with Roll
B. 4020
C. HD Scanner
D. T1120SD-MFP
E. Z6100ps
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which spot color system is most widely known?
A. HSK
B. Pantone
C. sRGB
D. RAL
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E18
Exam Name: HP HP Service Sales Consultant HP2-E18
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which service is bundled with VMware licenses?
A. no service is bundled
B. 9x5 support
C. 24x7 support
D. HP Installation and Startup Service
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement best describes a customer benefit of choosing HP Proactive Essentials Services?
A. provides a tailor-made service for the customer
B. decreases outages caused by software defects
C. provides cost-effective management with ongoing advice
D. keeps the hardware and software running and maintains IT availabilityobjectives
Answer: B

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NO.3 HP currently employs how many service professionals in how many countries worldwide?
A. less than 49,000 in 70 countries
B. more than 69,000 in 150 countries
C. more than 69,000 in 170 countries
D. more than 96,000 in 150 countries
Answer: C

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NO.4 When justifying the investment in services to a customer, which response is considered a best practice?
A. Provide lots of industry examples of where HP is number one.
B. Ensure that the customer understands all of the features of the servicesbeing offered.
C. Only include services in the sales cycle once the customer has decidedon the hardware and software
solution.
D. Take a solutions selling approach to assure that the relationship betweenbusiness goals and the
impact of IT on those goals is understood.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which services are included in the Virtualization Services portfolio? (Select three.)
A. education
B. data migration
C. telephone support
D. performance assessment E. capacity planner assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 What is the best question to open a dialogue with a customer that is in a changing IT environment?
A. How do you staff for special projects?
B. Ideally, how many additional staff do you plan to recruit?
C. What kind of changes is the business asking you to make?
D. What are your plans to achieve the next level of availability?
Answer: C

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NO.7 When is the best time to position HP Deployment Services to your customer?
A. at the start of the sales process that involves new hardware
B. after new hardware is delivered and the customer experiences technicaldifficulties
C. during the configuration process when HP Installation Services are addedto the order
D. after a hardware order is finalized and the customer starts to plandeployment activities
Answer: A

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NO.8 Why would you suggest the HP Mission Critical and Proactive Services to your customers?
A. They are high-cost services and will help you meet your numbers.
B. It is the only way you will meet the new Penetration Rate Index (PRI)commitment.
C. They are a way of guaranteeing that a customer never has any moreunplanned downtime.
D. They can help reduce a customer's exposure and vulnerability and protectagainst costly downtime
risks.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Where do HP Education Services belong within the Business Critical Server (BCS) support services
portfolio?
A. referral services
B. premium services
C. value-added services
D. basic support services
Answer: C

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NO.10 How can HP ProLiant Services help reduce a customer's overall cost? (Select three.)
A. protects business data
B. minimizes the risk of downtime
C. results in 80% less deployment costs
D. optimizes power management in the IT environment
E. decreases IT maintenance and improves operational efficiency
Answer: B,C,E

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Exam Code: HP2-T12
Exam Name: HP Servicing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers HP2-T12
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Where can you view the Automatic Server Recovery (ASR) settings? (Select two.)
A. RBSU
B. Inspect
C. iLO Administration page
D. Integrated Management Log (IML)
E. System Management Home Page
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which RAID technology supports the failure of any two drives in the same RAID set at the
same time?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID ADG (RAID 6)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which bus connects AMD Opteron processors together?
A. InfiniBand
B. Profusion
C. Northbridge
D. HyperTransport
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which ProLiant server feature reboots the server after a hardware failure?
A. ADU
B. ASR
C. RBSU
D. ORCA
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which HP ProLiant 300 Series servers support mirrored memory? (Select two.)
A. DL360 G5
B. DL385 G2
C. ML330 G3
D. ML350 G5
E. ML370 G5
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Which ProLiant server family is intended for maximum internal storage?
A. BL
B. CL
C. ML
D. DL
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which components can be included in a packaged cluster solution from HP? (Select three.)
A. DL380
B. DL760
C. ML370
D. MSA30
E. MSA50
F. MSA500
G. MSA1000
Answer: A,D,G

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NO.8 Which processor family does a ProLiant DL385 server use?
A. Intel Xeon
B. HP PA-RISC
C. AMD Opteron
D. Intel Itanium 2
Answer: C

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NO.9 Where are Advanced Memory Protection Options configured?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. RBSU
D. ORCA
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which high-availability solution level is recommended for a mission-critical business
continuity model?
A. 99.8%
B. 99.9%
C. 99.99%
D. 99.999%
Answer: D

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